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福建省宁德市2019-2020高一英语下学期期末试题(Word版附答案)
宁德市2019—2020学年度第二学期期末高一质量检测 英 语 试 题 (考试时间:120分钟 满分150分) 温馨提示:请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。 第一部分 听力(共两节,共30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,共7.5分) 听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. When did the speakers last see each other? A. Seven years ago. B. Eight years ago. C. Ten years ago. 2. Why can’t the man go to the show? A. He isn’t fine. B. He has to work. C. He slept too late. 3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Friends. C. Cousins. 4. Where is the woman going? A. The taxi company. B. The XinHua Hotel. C. The Hilton Hotel. 5. What does the man seem to care about most? A. The price. B. The bedroom. C. The size. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,共22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7两个小题。 6. How much is the pair of brown trousers? A. $12. B. $15. C. $24. 7. What color trousers will the man buy? A. Blue. B. Brown. C. Black. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9两个小题。 8. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Weekend plans. B. The countryside life. C. A dinner. 9. Who will certainly go to the countryside? A. The man’s girlfriend. B. The man’s brother. C. The woman’s sister. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12三个小题。 10. What will the man do on Wednesday? A. Hand in a report. B. Take a math test. C. Finish a paper. 11. Which grade is the man in? A. Seventh grade. B. Eighth grade. C. Ninth grade. 12. How will the woman help the man tonight? A. By checking his paper. B. By helping him study math. C. By looking at his book report. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16四个小题。 13. How does the man feel about learning Chinese? A. It’s difficult. B. It’s easy. C. It’s interesting. 14. Why is it easier for the woman to learn Chinese? A. She taught English in China. B. She studied Chinese very hard. C. She lived in China for one year. 15. What did the woman’s mother do? A. A Chinese teacher. B. An English teacher. C. A French teacher. 16. What does the woman advise the man to do? A. Visit some Chinese families. B. Sit beside a Chinese student at lunch. C. Invite some Chinese friends to his classes. 听下面一段独白,回答第17至20题四个小题。 17. What will the listeners do on Tuesday afternoon? A. Do some sports. B. Watch a ball game. C. Make a walking tour. 18. Where will the listeners go on Friday morning? A. To a cinema. B. To a swimming center. C. To a sports center. 19. How will the listeners go to Oxford? A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot. 20. When will the listeners go to London on Sunday morning? A. At 9:00. B. At 6:00. C. At 8:00. 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,共30分) 第一节(共10小题;每小题2分,共20分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A The symbol of Paris, the Eiffel Tower opened to the public on March 31, 1889, and its beauty has continued to spellbind the world for 130 years. But some little-known facts about the Eiffel Tower may surprise you. We’ve put together a list. It’s the world’s most visited paid tourist attraction Almost seven million visitors each year pay the admission fee to visit the Eiffel Tower. Since it opened in 1889, nearly 300 million people have experienced the tower. There’s an apartment at the top A personal apartment that Gustave Eiffel used as an office was created at the top of the tower. Eiffel entertained many important persons there, and today visitors to the apartment will see it as it looked in Eiffel’s day, with life-like wax models (蜡像) of Eiffel and Thomas Edison. You could send a postcard by balloon from the Eiffel Tower During the 1889 World’s Fair, visitors could buy a commemorative (纪念) postcard that was attached to a balloon and a small parachute (降落伞). Visitors would write an address on the postcard and release it into the air from the tower. The postcard would fall back to earth gently due to the parachute, but it’s not known how many of these postcards ever made it to their intended addresses. 19th-century elevators are still in operation Two of the original elevator cars are still functioning in the Eiffel Tower elevators that go to the third floor in the east and west pillars (铁柱). The equipment has been updated, but it is basically the same technology that was used more than a century ago. 21. What do you know about the apartment at the top? A. It was used as Eiffel’s office. B. It used to be a public apartment. C. It sells wax models of Eiffel and Edison. D. It only provides service for important persons. 22. What is special about sending the postcard? A. The symbol. B. The fee. C. The way. D. The time. 23. What is the text intended to do? A. To update the equipment. B. To show some interesting stories. C. To explain the amazing history. D. To share some little-known facts. B Born in 1918, in the little town of White Sulphur Springs, West Virginia, Katherine Johnson was simply attracted by numbers. As a child, she counted everything. She counted the steps to the road, the steps up to church, the number of dishes she washed …By the time she was 10 years old, she was a high school freshman, which was truly amazing in a time when school for African-Americans normally stopped at eighth grade. To meet her math potential (潜力), her father drove his family 120 miles to Institute, West Virginia, where blacks could continue high school education. Johnson’s excellent performance proved her father’s decision was the right one: Katherine skipped grades (跳级) to graduate from high school at 14 and from college at 18. In 1953, after years as a teacher and later as a stay-at-home mom, she began working for NASA, which began hiring women to measure and calculate the results of wind tunnel (风洞) tests in 1935. In a time before the electronic computers, these women were called “computer”. Even after NASA began using electronic computers, the astronaut John Glenn requested that she should personally recheck the calculations made by the new electronic computers before his flight. She continued to work at NASA until 1986. Her calculations proved critical to the success of the Apollo Moon landing program and the United States’ journey into space. Her story was the basis for the 2016 film Hidden Figures. Katherine Johnson, a great mathematician, physicist, space scientist and the last computer that wore skirts, passed away on February 24, 2020. 24. What can be inferred from Paragraph 1? A. Katherine left high school at eighth grade. B. Katherine was gifted in math as a child. C. Katherine was required to count in her childhood. D. African-Americans had a good education in the 1920s. 25. How long did Katherine work at NASA? A. 18 years. B. 33 years. C. 51 years. D. 81 years. 26. Which best explains the underlined word “critical” in Paragraph 3? A. Important. B. Successful. C. Dangerous. D. Harmful. 27. What’s the best title for the text? A. Scientists at NASA B. Katherine Johnson’s Education C. A Great Mathematician’s Decision D. Katherine Johnson, a Computer that Wore Skirts C For a long time, the smartwatch industry had just a few big companies that could set any prices they wanted and kept cheating customers. But now one new tech company is turning the $5 billion smartwatch industry on its head. The company called OshenWatch has found a way to offer a far advanced product at a part of the original price. Let’s meet the OshenWatch. OshenWatch combines the functions of a fitness band (手环), digital watch, and health monitor all into one. It feels comfortable to wear. Even better than some of the expensive smartwatches I own from other big tech companies. Extreme indoor and outdoor sports? No problem, the hardened aluminum shell (铝壳) and the lowered-temperature touchscreen glass won’t break easily even if you tried. In my opinion, the OshenWatch is the next generation of smartwatches. Take calls, sleep monitoring, show incoming messages, etc... The watch has all the basic functions that a good smartwatch must have and much more. What makes the OshenWatch so popular? The green laser (激光) behind the watch is the secret! It is the heart rate monitoring function. This watch lets you measure your blood pressure, heart rate, blood oxygen level, calculate your beats per minute. Give you extremely important time to catch problems early, and seek medical help before it’s too late. This is the reason why the OshenWatch will be the best-selling smartwatch of 2020. No other watch is that advanced. It could actually save your life one day! 28. What is the advantage of the OshenWatch? A. Its price is the lowest. B. It has various functions. C. It is made of aluminum. D. It can lower the temperature. 29. Which of the following can be measured by the OshenWatch? ①blood pressure ②blood sugar level ③heart rate ④blood oxygen level ⑤eye pressure A. ①③④ B. ②③④ C. ①②⑤ D. ②③⑤ 30. Where is this text most likely from? A. A diary. B. A guidebook. C. A novel. D. A magazine. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,共10分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两项为多余选项。 Pets can add extra fun to your everyday life. 31 More importantly, you need to take care of its nutrition and health. 32 While your pet’s diet will be different depending on what type of animal it is, it’s important to feed it fresh food regularly. Choose food that’s fit for your pet, and only give your pet treats (美味食物) occasionally. If you have any questions about what to feed your pet, consult your veterinarian (兽医). Feed your pet the suggested amount of food at each meal. Be sure to follow the suggestions on how much your pet needs to eat each day. Feeding too much leads to becoming too fat. 33 These could include heart disease, kidney (肾) problems, and so on. Know what foods you should never give your pet. 34 So be sure you know what you can and can’t give your pet before you offer it a treat. For example, while it’s perfectly fine to give your dog small bits of chicken or fish, you should never give them food containing chocolate or garlic, as these can be harmful. Give your pet fresh water every day. All animals require water to live, although some will need much more than others. No matter what the size of your pet is, make sure that it always has access to fresh, clean water. Check or refill the water once or twice a day and if they drink from a bowl, wash out the bowl every 2 to 3 days. 35 . A. It can cause other health problems. B. Provide your pet with toys if it likes them. C. Certain foods are harmful to some animals. D. Provide your pet with a healthy, balanced diet. E. However, you should give your pet the attention it needs. F. Make sure you have everything it will need before you bring it home. G. If they live in water, change the water and clean the container at least once a week. 第三部分 语言知识运用 (共三节,共55分) 第一节 完形填空 (共18小题;每小题1.5分,共27分) 阅读下面短文,从A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Two weeks ago, I felt life was so hard to me. My husband, Jack, drove an 18-wheeler for a 36 . On his way home from Colorado three months ago, he 37 a sudden rainstorm on the highway. The driver in the car in front of him 38 control on the pavement. In order to avoid 39 the car, Jack drove his truck 40 a ditch (沟渠) and he lost his life. But he 41 all the family in the car. I was shocked. In all our twenty-three years of 42 , Jack had never wanted me to work. After losing my husband, I tried to find 43 but, without skills, no one wanted to hire me. After 44 Jack, I used up the remaining money. I started going to the food pantry (食物分发站). Two weeks before Christmas, I came to buy some 45 for what I thought might be my last dinner. 46 , one of the volunteers handed me a gift card. There was no value 47 on the card but I hoped it would be enough to buy my grandchildren a few small gifts. Imagine my 48 when I went to the store and found out the card was worth $500. The 49 money allowed me to buy Christmas 50 for my grandchildren and enough groceries (杂货). Feeling 51 , I signed up for a call center training 52 and will begin working in less than a month. I thank that volunteer and all the people who 53 out to help people in need. I know I will lead a wonderful new life. 36. A. living B. game C. race D. play 37. A. agreed with B. met with C. broke into D. looked into 38. A. kept B. took C. got D. lost 39. A. selling B. driving C. hitting D. repairing 40. A. under B. with C. into D. from 41. A. beat B. saved C. recovered D. warned 42. A. marriage B. friendship C. communication D. competition 43. A. advice B. power C. hope D. work 44. A. cheating B. burying C. meeting D. forgetting 45. A. cookers B. water C. food D. gifts 46. A. However B. Besides C. Therefore D. Finally 47. A. bought B. wasted C. printed D. left 48. A. fear B. disappointment C. sadness D. surprise 49. A. unexpected B. little C. lost D. stolen 50. A. wishes B. presents C. trees D. holidays 51. A. frightened B. excited C. encouraged D. interested 52. A. experience B. purpose C. college D. programme 53. A. watch B. reach C. bring D. point 第二节 完成句子(共13个空;每空1分,共13分) 54. Mark Twain was born in Florida and was _______ ________ (抚养) in Hannibal. 55. People love to get together to eat, drink and_______ ________ (玩得开心). 56. Most people would agree that success depends on effort _______ ________ (而不是) luck. 57. _______ ________ _______ (接近) nature is good for your health. You shouldn’t stay at your office all day. 58. With all these attractions, _______ ________ (难怪) tourism is increasing wherever there is a Disneyland. 59. Their balanced diets became such a success that _______ ________ (不久以后) they both became healthy. 第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 As Victor Hugo once said, “Laughter is the sun 60 drives winter from the human face.” Till now nobody has been able to do this 61 (well) than Charlie Chaplin. Take The Gold Rush for example. The film is set in California in the middle of the 62 (nineteen) century. Chaplin and his friend have rushed there and expected to find gold, 63 they have not been fortunate enough to find any. What’s worse, they are caught in a snowstorm in a small wooden house with nothing to eat. They are very hungry and finally 64 they had to do is to boil a pair of leather shoes for dinner. Surprisingly, Chaplin acts as if it were one of the best 65 (meal) he has ever had! Charlie Chaplin was gifted in 66 (make) terrible situations funny and managed to show the courage and 67 (kind) that can be found in the most difficult situation. He is loved and remembered as 68 outstanding actor who not only amazes us by his wonderful performances but 69 (inspire) us with great confidence. (背面还有试题) 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分) 第一节 概要写作(满分10分) 阅读短文,根据其内容写一篇60词左右的内容概要。 Recently, Children should eat their meals and snacks at home during the outbreak of the covid-19 (新冠病毒), which means not only adding a new stress (压力) for parents (e.g., a lot more cooking!), but also providing a new chance for parents to teach children cooking skills. Helping children develop an interest in cooking when they’re young can help them have the valuable life skill that they can carry into adulthood. Allowing children to help in the kitchen encourages them to learn where food comes from, and teaches them about nutrition and food safety (e.g., the importance of washing fresh produce with clean water, or hand-washing before and after helping in the kitchen). Doing so may also help children overcome picky eating by becoming more accepting of new foods. What’s more, cooking and baking can be fun ways to spend time while bonding with family. The key is finding tasks that suit children’s age and ability, while still guiding and monitoring their progress. Activities that may attract a preschooler’s interest in cooking include helping to wash fruits and vegetables and add toppings to a pizza. Older children can be given tasks such as measuring ingredients into cups or beating eggs. Proper cooking skills to introduce to the children aged between 8 and 10 include planning a family meal or following a simple recipe (食谱). By ages 10 to 12, once able to follow kitchen safety rules, many children can prepare more recipes, including meatballs, cookies and cupcakes. Getting children to take part in kitchen activities may require patience as they learn. That’s why it’s helpful to have some extra time at home. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 应用文写作(满分25分) 假如你是李华,你校英文报 “Life Tricks” 栏目将刊登解决生活常见问题的小窍门的短文。请给英国朋友Tom写信约稿,内容要点如下: 1. 栏目介绍; 2. 稿件要求:介绍3条生活小妙招; 3. 交稿日期:8月25日前。 注意: 1. 词数100左右; 2. 适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。 Dear Tom, __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 宁德市2019–2020学年度第二学期期末高一质量检测 英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第一部分听力(共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分;与参考答案不符的不得分) 1-5 CACBA 6-10 BCABB 11-15 CCACB 16-20 BCABA 第二部分阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分, 满分30分;与参考答案不符的不得分) 21-23 ACD 24-27 BBAD 28-30 BAD 31-35 EDACG 第三部分英语知识运用 第一节完形填空(共18小题;每小题1.5分, 满分27分;与参考答案不符的不得分) 36-40 ABDCC 41-45BADBC 46-50 ACDAB 51-53 CDB 第二节完成句子(共13个空;每空1分, 满分13分;与参考答案不符的不得分,大小写错误不得分, 没有将完整的单词写在答题卡上不得分。) 54. brought up 55. have fun / enjoy themselves 56. rather than / instead of 57. Getting close to 58. no wonder 59. before long 第三节语法填空(共10个空;每空1.5分, 满分15分;与参考答案不符的不得分。) 60. that / which 61. better 62. nineteenth 63. but 64. what 65. meals 66. making 67. kindness 68. an 69. inspires 第四部分写作(共两节满分35分) 第一节、概要写作 评分原则: 1、本题总分为10分,按5个档次给分。 评分时,先根据所写概要的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。第一个要点4分,后面三个要点每个2分。 词数少于40的和多于80的,从总分中减去2分。 评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑: (1)对原文要点的理解和呈现情况; (2)运用语法结构和词汇的准确性; (3)上下文的连贯性; (4)对各要点表达的独立性情况。 各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 (9-10分) 1.理解准确,涵盖全部要点。 2.能准确使用相应的语法结构和词汇。 3.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所完成的概要结构紧凑。 4.完全没有整句抄自原文。 第四档 (7-8分) 1.理解准确,涵盖绝大部分要点。 2.所使用语法结构和词汇可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。 3.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所完成的概要结构紧凑。 4.有个别整句抄自原文。 第三档 (5-6分) 1.理解较为准确,涵盖绝大部分要点。 2.所使用语法结构和词汇虽有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。 3.应用简单的语句间连接成分,使上下文内容连贯。 4.出现两句以上整句抄自原文现象。 第二档 (3-4分) 1.理解有误差,仅涵盖半数要点。 2.有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。 3.较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。 4.出现两句以上整句抄自原文现象。 第一档 (1-2分) 1.没有理解原文,造成概要内容与原文主题不符。 2.有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。 3.缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。 4.多个句子抄自原文。 (0-1分) 白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容相关但不成句。 备注:每漏一个要点扣2分。 参考范文: It’s meaningful for parents to get their children involved in the kitchen activities when trapped at home. (要点1) Firstly, parents can arouse their interest in cooking at an early age, which is beneficial to children. (要点2)Secondly, they should give the children some suitable tasks depending on their age and ability. (要点3) Finally, parents should be patient when children are learning to cook. (要点4) 第二节、应用文写作 1. 本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。 2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量, 确定或调整档次,最后给分。 3. 词数少于80从总分中减去2分,多写不扣分。 4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。 内容要点: 1. 栏目介绍; 2. 稿件要求:介绍3条生活小妙招; 3. 交稿日期:8月25日前。 各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档 (21—25)分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑,完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。 第四档 (16—20分) 完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 (11—15分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。 应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 (6—10分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档 (1—5分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判; 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 五、书面表达评分细则 1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座,依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。 2、书面表达共5个要点,每个内容要点4分,共20分,语言准确性(包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强,语法结构,语句间的连接成分等)5分,合计25分。漏掉一个要点扣4分。 3、没使用连接词、较高级词汇、较复杂结构,内容齐全,无错误,但没文采,最高只能评23分。 4、出现两三个小错误,使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构,有效使用了语句间的连接成分,全文结构紧凑,可读性强,也可以评高分(23分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。 5、确定档次后,时态错误较多,在本档内扣2-3分,时态错误较少扣1分。 6、写出一个要点给4分。 7、要点齐全,错误相对较多,但不影响理解,可评(10—15分)。要点齐全,错误很多,但不影响理解,可评(5—10分)。 8、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个,不影响意思表达,不扣分。错2—3个扣1分,5个以上扣2分。 9、时态错误一个扣1分,多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。 10、要点认定: 考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构,不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中,如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息,但主谓结构有严重语言错误(如时态、语态,动词或只写出情态动词而无主词),酌情扣分(扣0.5或1分)。 11、 在同一档次内,根据语言错误的多少确定分值:1—2个错误,取该档次分值的高线;3—4个错误,取该档次分值的中线;5个错误,取该档次分值的低线;6个以上错误,可以降一档,取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误,取其降档后的低线。 参考范文: Dear Tom, Knowing that you have rich life experience, I am writing to invite you to write an article for “Life Tricks”, a column of our school English newspaper. The column is very popular among us students. It carries many life tricks written by foreign friends, which not only develops our reading interest but also helps us solve daily problems. Would you please write something about the topic? You can write anything relevant so long as it’s interesting and informative. Three tricks would be fine. Please finish your article before August 25 and you’d better send it to lifetricks@126.com. Looking forward to hearing from you. Yours, Li Hua查看更多