山东省泰安市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题 Word版含答案

山东省泰安市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题 Word版含答案

试卷类型：A 泰安市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试 英语试题 注意事项：‎ ‎1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。‎ ‎2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。‎ ‎3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。‎ 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What does the man say about the TV drama?‎ A. It’s too long. B. It’s not interesting. C. There are lots of ads.‎ ‎2. When will Bob get to Amy’s house?‎ A. At 11:20. B. At 10:20. C. At 10:00.‎ ‎3. What kind of music does the man like?‎ A. Jazz. B. Rock. C. Opera.‎ ‎4. Where will the speakers go?‎ A. To the seaside. B. To a playground. C. To a swimming pool.‎ ‎5. How old is the woman now?‎ A. Sixteen years old. B. Fifteen years old. C. Eleven years old.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。‎ ‎6. What does the man want to do?‎ A. Work hard. B. Go to Ireland. C. Pay for the woman’s vacation.‎ ‎7. What does the woman think of her trip last year?‎ A. It cost a lot. B. It wasn’t fun enough. C. It made her exhausted.‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。‎ ‎8. What does the man think of the paining?‎ A. It’s silly. B. It’s beautiful. C. It’s quite complex.‎ ‎9. What does the man mean in the end?‎ A. He already ate. B. He’s also hungry. C. He agrees about the painting.‎ ‎10. Where does this conversation probably take place?‎ A. In a classroom. B. In an art gallery. C. In an art supply store.‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。‎ ‎11. Who is the woman?‎ A. A chef. B. Another customer. C. An employee at a grocery store.‎ ‎12. What did the man want to buy in the beginning?‎ A. Green peppers. B. Tomatoes. C. Potatoes.‎ ‎13. What is the man unsure of?‎ A. How much to spend. B. How to cook something. C. Where to find the vegetables.‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。‎ ‎14. What did the man just do?‎ A. He took a hot shower. B. He cleaned his room. C. He reserved a hotel.‎ ‎15. Why does the man’s upper back need some work?‎ A. He lifted weights. B. He moved some rocks. C. He moved a bookcase.‎ ‎16. What will the speakers get if they take the survey?‎ A. An extra trip. B. A free dinner. C. A free airplane ticket.‎ 听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。‎ ‎17. After the concert, how did the speaker get back home?‎ A. By car. B. By bike. C. On foot.‎ ‎18. Why couldn’t the speaker get into her house?‎ A. She lost her key. B. Her key was inside. C. The lock was broken.‎ ‎19. How did the speaker plan to get into her house?‎ A. Through the window. B. By calling the police. C. By breaking down the door.‎ ‎20. What did the police see inside the house?‎ A. A thief. B. Some photos. C. The house key.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。‎ A Music, nature and picnics in the sun: here are the best operas to catch this summer.‎ Opera Holland Park, London For a mixture of urban and country operas, this open-air theatre is built each summer right in the heart of one of the most quiet parks of London.‎ Book early as tickets sell out fast, and remember to bring a wrap or blanket to keep yourself warm on chillier summer evenings!‎ July 4 to August 3, operahollandpark.com Glyndebourne Festival Opera, East Sussex Glyndebourne is one of the oldest opera festivals in the world. It attracts some of the world’s greatest artists. Besides, the festival’s the perfect occasion to put on your black tie or evening dress, enjoy a long picnic during the 90-minute interval (间隔). Summer festivals don’t get better than this.‎ July 8 to August 25, glyndebourne.com The Grange Festival, Hampshire Surrounded by lots of green plants and overseeing a picturesque lake, The Grange Festival in Hampshire is certain to be one of the most impressive visual feasts (视觉盛宴) you’ll ever see.‎ Arrive a bit early to take in the countryside views. During the lengthy interval, you’ll enjoy a romantic dinner—an essential part of the festival.‎ July 6 to August 6, thegrangefestival.co.uk Grange Park Opera, Surrey Though it’s relatively new, the festival attracts some of the world’s top talent and this year’s edition is no different, featuring performances by one of the world’s most charming mezzo-sopranos, Joyce DiDonato, and the charismatic baritone Simon Keenlyside.‎ July 6 to August 13, grangeparkopera.co.uk ‎21. What should you do if you go to Opera Holland Park?‎ A. Put on your best dress. B. Book tickets early.‎ C. Enjoy a romantic dinner. D. Perform on the stage.‎ ‎22. Which of the following may have the most beautiful natural environment?‎ A. Opera Holland Park. B. Grange Park Opera.‎ C. The Grange Festival. D. Glyndebourne Festival Opera.‎ ‎23. What is the purpose of author in writing the text?‎ A. To attract more visitors to Britain.‎ B. To inform you of traveling destinations.‎ C. To advertise some places of interest.‎ D. To introduce British opera festivals.‎ B Melanie was born with spina bifida, a condition that rid her of the ability to walk. All her life, she had been using a wheelchair to get around. Trevor, on the other hand, has been blind since he was born.‎ The two ran into each other at an adaptive rock climbing class. They soon learned that they shared a common love for nature. Knowing all of this, the pair came up with a brilliant idea—with their strengths combined, they would climb the mountains of Colorado together!‎ Before the start of each journey, Melanie, secure in carrier, is hoisted by a friend or a fellow hiker onto Trevor’s back. Her role is to give verbal directions to her partner as they pass through the trail (小径). “I describe everything I see and exactly how Trevor needs to move,” Melanie said of their hiking method. “It just seemed like common sense,” she told Good Morning America. “He’s the legs, I’m the eyes—boom! Together, we’re the dream team.”‎ To them, the best part about hiking as a pair is that they get to give each other the chance to accomplish something that others might believe is impossible.‎ ‎“It made me so happy to help someone experience what I’ve been able to experience my whole life. Just getting on top of a mountain, you just feel that sense of accomplishment. The best part is being able to make her smile. That gives me purpose,” Trevor said.‎ As for Melanie, she says that the activity also gives her the feeling of freedom. “I’ve been in a wheelchair my whole life, and it’s an amazing feeling to leave it miles behind on the trail. I even couldn’t get in it if I wanted to, and that’s a great feeling,” she said.‎ ‎24. What do we know about Melanie and Trevor?‎ A. They are born disabled.‎ B. They are good at sports.‎ C. They show no interest in outdoor activities.‎ D. They’ve known each other since they were born.‎ ‎25. Which of the following can best replace the underlined word “hoisted” in paragraph 3?‎ A. Caught. B. Lifted. C. Removed. D. Pushed.‎ ‎26. What does Trevor think of hiking with Melanie?‎ A. He thinks it meaningful.‎ B. He gets the feeling of freedom.‎ C. He thinks the experience amusing.‎ D. He feels it his duty to help Melanie.‎ ‎27. What’s the topic of the text?‎ A. Two people worked together as a team.‎ B. Hiking as a pair proved to be successful.‎ C. Two disabled teamed up for hiking adventures.‎ D. A blind man helped a woman who couldn’t walk.‎ C Can you think of a day without music? We can hear music everywhere: in the streets and at home, over the radio and on TV, in the shops and in the parks. People all over the world are fond of music. They listen to music, they dance to music, and they learn to play musical instruments.‎ Music isn’t only a combination of pleasant sounds. It is an art which reflects life. There are a lot of different kinds of music. Some of them appeared long ago, and some are modern. Folk music appeared long ago, but it is still alive. Folk songs are very pleasant to listen to. Classical music is often connected with the music of the past.‎ ‎ Rap is a modern musical style where the singer speaks or shouts the words in time to music with a steady beat.‎ Great Britain has produced more popular music stars than any other country. British groups often set new trends in music. New styles, groups and singers continue to appear. Many of the new bands have been able to use changes in technology to develop their music such as computerised drum machines, synthesisers and other electronic instruments.‎ Tastes differ. So people’s musical interests range from pop and rock music to classical music. My favourite style of music is pop music, because it is full of energy. When I listen to pop music it makes me remember happy times and forget the problems of everyday life. I also enjoy listening to classical music. The music I hate is heavy metal. I find it noisy. When I listen to this style of music it presents to my mind pictures of dark days. My mother and father agree with my tastes in music. Though they prefer to listen to classical, they think that modern music is not too bad.‎ Music appeals to our hearts. It comforts our souls and enriches our minds. Music is beauty in sounds; it is our magic source of inspiration.‎ ‎28. What is the first paragraph mainly about?‎ A. Several types of music. B. The development of musical styles.‎ C. Different musical tastes. D. The importance of music in our lives.‎ ‎29. How is the second paragraph developed?‎ A. By giving examples. B. By analysing reasons.‎ C. By describing courses. D. By making comparisons.‎ ‎30. Why does the author like pop music?‎ A. It is loud and strong. B. It is characterised by a steady beat.‎ C. It sounds energetic. D. It is played with electronic instruments.‎ ‎31. What is the author’s parents’attitude towards his musical taste?‎ A. Doubtful. B. Supportive. C. Dissatisfied. D. Unconcerned.‎ D If you’ve ever wondered what the process of becoming an astronaut is like, Kennedy Space Center Visitor Complex (KSCVC) now has an experience that puts visitors in the shoes of a space explorer in training. The center’s Astronaut Training Experience (ATE), features four simulations (模拟). They all require teamwork and good communication.‎ Dee Maynard, manager of education programs at KSCVC, said the experience was designed to keep visitors involved the whole time. “When we were designing this, one of our concerns was that we wanted to be having an experience and not waiting around,” Maynard said. “Also, astronaut training is very much a team effort.”‎ Although astronauts go through thousands of hours of training before taking off for space, this training does include some parts that are similar to those of real NASA training.‎ One simulation helps visitors learn what it takes to launch NASA’s Space Launch System rocket. Six people step into the role of launch control and communicate with six others on the Orion capsule.‎ Visitors take turns reading and passing instructions and sets of data from both sides. In mission control (地面指挥中心), they can step into roles including flight director and spacecraft systems officer. Inside the capsule, people try their hand at such jobs as flight engineer and commander.‎ Across the room, there are chairs that are similar to the kind of zero gravity chair. With the press of a switch, the chairs fly across a special floor, giving astronauts-in-training an experience that somewhat simulates the zero gravity environment of space. This part of the experience also offers visitors a chance to learn about the management about sleeping, using the toilet and working in space.‎ Two simulations help participants experience what life on Mars might look like.‎ ‎32. What are the qualities most required for the astronaut training at KSCVC?‎ ‎①Working together. ②Reading skills.‎ ‎③Data analyzing. ④Communication skills.‎ A. ①③ B. ①④ C. ②③ D. ②④‎ ‎33. How might people feel when they take part in ATE?‎ A. Busy. B. Bored. C. Worried. D. Comfortable.‎ ‎34. We can conclude in the paragraph that follows ________.‎ A. the readers will get to know more about roles in space.‎ B. the zero gravity environment of space will be described.‎ C. the author might introduce NASA’s Space Launch System.‎ D. the “land and drive on Mars” simulators might be talked about.‎ ‎35. What would be the best title for the text?‎ A. Explore the Future of Space B. Realize Your Dream at KSCVC C. Experience Life as an Astronaut D. Make Yourself a Great Astronaut 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ When you’ve finished your studies at school and college, do you feel like a well-earned rest? If you’re about to take up a course at university, you’ll want to recharge your batteries and have some fun. But how long should you do that for? 36 ‎ A year off—also called a gap year—is a period of time when a student takes a break before going to university. 37 But there’s now a focus on making the most of this break from academic life. Long gone are the days of just hanging out on a beach or traveling abroad. 38 Doing something productive is exactly what students are being encouraged to do because doing more purposeful things helps them acquire skills to use when competing for a place at university.‎ ‎ 39 A student, Tom, told the BBC “it would have been too expensive and it’s not something that I would have been able to rely on my parents or family members for.” But some experts say that it needn’t burn a hole in your pocket. You don’t need to travel far and you can even earn money by doing paid work.‎ For those who do have the funds, a combination of working, volunteering and travelling is undoubtedly an amazing opportunity. 40 It also gives you time to think whether university is right for you.‎ A. It’s not a new idea.‎ B. It is important to have fun.‎ C. Now the idea of taking a year off seems to be the thing to do.‎ D. There’s a common thought that gap years are only for rich students E. A gap year is now more about gaining skills that will help you in later life.‎ F. It increases confidence and independence and gives you a chance to learn new skills.‎ G. While the benefits of taking a gap year are clear, some students worry they can’t afford it.‎ 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ It is every kid’s worst nightmare (梦魔) and six-year-old Jaden Hayes has lived it twice. First, he 41 his dad when he was four and then last month his mom died unexpectedly, 42 him an orphan (孤儿).‎ Jaden is understandably heartbroken. But there’s another side to his 43 . A side he first made 44 three weeks ago when he told his friends that he was tired of seeing some people sad all the time. And he had a plan to 45 it.‎ Here is how it all 46 . Jaden asked his aunt to buy a bunch of little 47 and take him to downtown Savannah to give them away. He 48 people who aren’t already smiling and then turns their day around, expecting 49 in return—but a smile.‎ So far he has gone out on four different occasions and 50 nearly 500 smiles. Sometimes it simply confuses some people 51 a six-year-old would give them a toy. They behaved awkwardly at first: stepping back or giving a 52 smile. In most cases, however, he will be paid in nervous hugs. Those good reactions have worked wonders: the more people that he made smile, the more 53 came out of him.‎ For Jaden, he would 54 his parents with each passing day. He puts smiles back on the face of others to lift their 55 . He reminds us too, that however tough life can be, there is always some measure of joy.‎ ‎41. A. saw B. lost C. saved D. recognized ‎42. A. finding B. leaving C. proving D. seeing ‎43. A. interest B. puzzle C. delight D. sadness ‎44. A. safe B. short C. public D. available ‎45. A. fix B. enjoy C. achieve D. finish ‎46. A. began B. ended C. changed D. helped ‎47. A. flowers B. toys C. books D. keys ‎48. A. asks B. loves C. targets D. believes ‎49. A. anything B. something C. everything D. nothing ‎50. A. shared B. claimed C. exchanged D. collected ‎51. A. why B. how C. when D. where ‎52. A. warm B. wide C. tight D. sweet ‎53. A. joy B. envy C. doubt D. surprise ‎54. A. visit B. miss C. tell D. search ‎55. A. sounds B. hands C. spirits D. eyes 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ People send birthday wishes using cards and postcards in many cultures. It’s not known when and where the tradition of 56 (send) birthday cards began, however, it is believed 57 it was in England in the early nineteenth century. In those days people sent birthday cards because they couldn’t wish somebody 58 happy birthday in person.‎ In 1840, the first postage stamp was issued in Britain and sending birthday cards became 59 (cheap) and therefore more popular. The 60 (develop) of colour printing processes in the 1930s also helped to increase sales of cards.‎ Today usually cards 61 (give) with a present, even when people can send 62 (they) wishes in person. In recent times, e-cards have also become popular: many people are starting to use these instead of traditional cards as they are free, environmentally 63 (friend) and arrive more quickly. So will e-cards take ‎ the place 64 paper cards in ten or twenty years? Probably not. For young children and old people or for very formal occasions, e-cards are not proper and some people 65 (simple) don’t use the Internet.‎ 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）‎ ‎66. To my delight, I am given the o to perform alone on video.‎ ‎67. We can visit you on Saturday or Sunday; our plans are fairly (灵活的).‎ ‎68. It suddenly o to me that we could use a computer to do the job.‎ ‎69. The doctor told me to take the medicine (定时地) three times a day.‎ ‎70. Remember to get your battery (充电) before setting off from the camping ground.‎ 第二节 汉译英（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ ‎71. 坦率地说，我和姐姐没有任何共同点。‎ ‎72. 唐人街是美国多元文化的一个重要组成部分。‎ ‎73. 伟大音乐家创作的美好音乐，可帮助人们度过艰难时光。‎ ‎74. 用网络和朋友保持联系是很方便的。‎ ‎75. 作为回报，他乐意将所有的钱捐给慈善机构。‎ 第三节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 假定你是李华，为走进自然，了解文化，增强体质，你校将在暑假期间组织到泰山进行研学旅行（educational excursion）。请给你校外教Peter写封邮件，邀请他参加。内容包括：‎ ‎1. 活动目的；‎ ‎2. 具体安排。‎ 注意： 1. 词数100词左右；‎ ‎2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；‎ ‎3. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。‎ 高一年级考试 英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎1—5 CABAA 6—10 BAABB 11—15 CABCC 16—20 BCBAB 第二部分 阅读（共20小题；满分50分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）‎ ‎21—23 BCD 24—27 ABAC 28—31 DACB 32—35 BADC 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）‎ ‎36—40 CAEGF 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）‎ ‎41—45 BBDCA 46—50 ABCDD 51—55 ACABC 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎56. sending 57. that 58. a 59. cheaper 60. development ‎61. are given 62. their 63. friendly 64. of 65. simply 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分 40 分）‎ 第一节 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）‎ ‎66. opportunity 67. flexible 68. occurred 69. regularly 70. charged 第二节 汉译英（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ ‎71. To be frank, my sister and I have nothing in common.‎ ‎72. Chinatowns are an important part of the diverse culture of the USA.‎ ‎73. Beautiful music written by great musicians can help get through hard times.‎ ‎74. It’s convenient to keep in touch with friends through the Internet.‎ ‎75. He is willing to donate all his money to charity in return.‎ 第三节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ ‎（略）‎ 评分原则：‎ ‎1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。‎ ‎2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3. 词数少于80和多于120的，从总分中减去2分。‎ ‎4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。‎ ‎5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。‎ ‎6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。‎ 各档次的给分范围和要求：‎ 第五档（很好）：（21-25分）‎ ‎1. 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎2. 覆盖所有要点。‎ ‎3. 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。‎ ‎4. 语法结构和词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂的结构或较高级词汇所致。‎ ‎5. 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ ‎6. 完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第四档（好）：（16-20分）‎ ‎1. 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎2. 虽漏掉1—2个次重点但覆盖所有主要内容。‎ ‎3. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ ‎4. 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。‎ ‎5. 应用简单语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ ‎6. 达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第三档（适当）：（11-15分）‎ ‎1. 基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎2. 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖主要内容。‎ ‎3. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求。‎ ‎4. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。‎ ‎5. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。‎ ‎6. 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第二档（较差）：（6-10分）‎ ‎1. 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎2. 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。‎ ‎3. 语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。‎ ‎4. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。‎ ‎5. 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。‎ ‎6. 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ 第一档（差）：（0-5分）‎ ‎1. 未完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎2. 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。‎ ‎3. 语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。‎ ‎4. 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误影响对写作内容的理解。‎ ‎5. 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。‎ ‎6. 信息未能传达给读者。‎ 听力录音原文 Text 1‎ W: Mike, why don’t you like this TV drama? It’s really interesting.‎ M: Yeah, it is. But there are so many advertisements. (1)‎ Text 2‎ M: When is your birthday party, Amy?‎ W: At 10:00 tomorrow morning. Would you like to come to my party, Bob?‎ M: I’d love to, but I have to go to my guitar lesson first. I’ll get to your house at 11:20. (2)‎ Text 3‎ W: Wow, that opera singer is fantastic! I could listen to him all night.‎ M: Nah, not me. I prefer rock music. (3) This guy is kind of boring, even more so than jazz singers. I bet my mom would like him, though.‎ Text 4‎ W: What a beautiful sunny day today! Let’s go to the beach.‎ M: Okay, I’ll get my beach towel. (4) You can lie down on the sand while I go swimming.‎ Text 5‎ W: Look at this photo, Jack. It was taken when I was five years old.‎ M: Yeah, it was taken eleven years ago. (5) You’ve changed a lot.‎ W: Yes. I used to have short hair.‎ Text 6‎ M: Round-trip flights to Ireland are only S500. (6)‎ W: That’s pretty cheap.‎ M: Yeah. They are on sale for today only, though. Can we go? We can each pay our own expenses. (6)‎ W: I can’t.‎ M: Why not?‎ W: I spent too much last year on my vacation. (7) I am still trying to pay for that trip. It was fun, but now I am working day and night to pay for it.‎ Text 7‎ M: That painting is silly. (8) It’s just a bunch of lines and colors here and there.‎ W: If you would pay attention in our art class, then you would be able to see the beauty in the painting.‎ M: What do you mean?‎ W: You would learn about how the painting is set up and why certain colors are used. Then you would know what the artist is trying to do.‎ M: I still don’t see how that messy drawing can possibly mean anything.‎ W: We’ll just have to agree to disagree. Look, I’m starving. We need some food. (9) I know there’s a good place near the art gallery. (10)‎ M: Finally, we agree on something! (9)‎ Text 8‎ M: Excuse me. Why doesn’t the store have green peppers today? (11) (12)‎ W: Right now, they aren’t in season. We won’t have any green peppers until October.‎ M: That’s too bad. I need some for a special dish tonight.‎ W: I’m very sorry, but we try to provide our customers with the best vegetables that are in season. (11)‎ M: Yes, I like that about this store.‎ W: The potatoes and tomatoes are very fresh right now. We have potatoes to your right for $2 per pound, and the tomatoes behind you are just $3 per pound.‎ M: I like the first idea, but I don’t often cook potatoes. Do you have any suggestions? (13)‎ W: You can bake them or fry them.‎ M: Thank you very much. I’m going to try that tonight.‎ Text 9‎ M: It looks like our vacation to Hawaii will be very relaxing. I just booked our hotel room. (14)‎ W: Great! I am ready for a vacation where I can lie on the beach. Do they have hot stone massages?‎ M: Probably! What is that, by the way?‎ W: They use heated rocks to get into your sore muscles. I had one last week.‎ M: I just checked the hotel’s website, and they do offer hot stone massages! I think I will try one when we are there. My upper back needs some work after moving that bookcase yesterday. (15)‎ W: You worked so hard!‎ M: I see here that we can get a free dinner at the restaurant if we take an online survey. (16) Want to do it?‎ W: If it isn’t too long… I have work tomorrow.‎ M: Let’s do it! It will be one extra nice part of our vacation.‎ Text 10‎ On Saturday evening, I went to a concert. Afterwards, I walked back home. (17) When I arrived home, I realized that I had forgotten to take my house key with me. I had left it inside and left the door closed when I went out. (18) How was I going to get in? Luckily, I noticed that a side window was not fully closed. By pushing my arm through it, I could open the door inside. (19) Happy at this thought, I pushed the window open and was about to get into the house. Just then, a police car was passing by. The police saw a woman trying to get into the house through the window. They came over right away and wanted to take me to jail. I tried to explain everything, but they didn’t believe me. Finally, I asked them to come inside my house. There on the wall, I showed them all my photos. (20) The police believed me at last, and they asked me not to do such a thing in the future, as thieves might follow my example. I smiled and nodded my head.‎