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2019-2020学年天津市滨海新区高二上学期期末检测英语试题 word版
滨海新区2019-2020学年度第一学期期末检测试卷 高二年级英语 本试卷分为第I卷(听力)、第11卷(选择题)、第III卷(非选择题)三部分。 试卷满分150分.考试时间100分钟。 第I卷听力(满分30分) 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分〉 第一节(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分) 听下面五段对话.每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中 选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位听完每段对话后.你将有10秒钟的 时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题.每段对话仅读一遍。 1. How is the weather now? A. Cloudy; B. Rainy. C. Sunny. 2.Who is coming to visit the woman? A. Tom. B. Man C. John. 3.Why did the woman have a bad day ? A. She couldn't find anything. B. She was late for work. C. She was lost. 4.Where is the man's raincoat? A. On the bus. B. At home. C. In the office. 5. What are the speakers mainly discussing? A. Which hotel they will choose. B. When they will book a hotel. C. What the hotel on the seaside is like. 第二节(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分) 听下面几段材料.每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项 中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置,听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读 各个小每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料 读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。 6. When did the woman start to go on a diet? A. Two months ago. B. Three months ago. C. Five months ago. 7. What did the woman's trainer advise her to do? A. Eat less. B. Exercise more. C. Change her eating habits. 8. What will the man probably try to do next? A. Join a running club. B. Eat smaller meals a day. C. Ask the woman's trainer for help. 听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。 9. Why is Mr Smith leaving his position? A. To change a job. B. To travel around the world. C. To move to another country. 10. How does the man feel about Mr Smith's leaving? A. Surprised. B. Pleased. C. Angry. 11 . What will the man do on Friday afternoon? A. Plan for a meeting. B. Visit a lawyer. C. Attend a party. 听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。 12.What can people do in the center? A. Play volleyball. B. Play basketball. C. Go wall climbing. 13. How much will it cost to come to the center for a day? A. $15. B.$l8 C. $25. 14.What is the maximum of the group booking? A.5. B.8 C.18. 15.Who is Peter Wright? A.A manager. B. An operator. C. A coach. 第II卷选择题(满分90分) 第二部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分52.5分) 第一节 单项填空(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 16. The new law has come into effect, and number of wild animals here is on increase now. A. the; the B. a; the C. the; / D. a: / 17. David asked his nephew to his bag while he headed for a drink at the airport. A. run out of B. keep an eye on C. make up for D. take advantage of 18.Sorn. I would have come earlier, but I that you were waiting. A. didn't know B. hadn't known C. don't know D. haven't known 19.Tom was so wild about computer games that he would stay online for ten hours a day. A. in the end B. in particular C. on end D. on purpose 20.—He was a real sportsman. he is not very well-known. — . Besides, he was young. A. though: I am afraid not B. since; You are sure C. even if: I agree absolutely D. because; That's that point 21 .We forbid here. Who has permitted you here? A. smoke; smoking B. smoking; to smoke C. smoking; smoking D. to smoke; smoking 22.It makes no to me whether he will go to the city or not. Anyhow, I will go. A. thing B. difference C. matter D. affair 23. The man pulled out a gold watch, were made of small diamonds. A. the hands of whom B. whom the hands of C. which the hands of D. the hands of which 24. A hearty laugh relieves physical tension, your muscles relaxed for over half an hour. A. to leave B. leaving C. left D. leave 25.I remember a famous scientist said that we should believe in ourselves first of all. A. some B. certain C. sure D. other 26. When he was still very young, Ba Jin the reputation he still enjoys today as one of China's greatest writers. A. founded B. started C. established D. made 27. As teachers, we should be of our students' feelings. And then they will trust us. A. anxious B. afraid C. delighted D. considerate 28. The hall had no spare seats left last night. , the performance achieved a great success. A. Immediately B. Fortunately C. Surprisingly D. Obviously 29.Shakespeare's play Hamlet into at least ten different films over the past years. A. had been made B. was made C. has been made D. would be made 30.You have carried all these parcels yourself. the shop would have delivered them if you had asked them. A. may not B. needn't C. can't D. mustn't 第二节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从31〜50各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选 项中,选出量佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Be a Good One "Whatever you are,” said Abraham Lincoln, "be a good one." He 31 it with his own life. And in the present age. his words 32 an improvement. Composer Frederick Loewe was not always 33 . He learned the piano from the great masters of Europe and achieved huge success as a(n) 34 and composer in his early years. But when he immigrated to the United States, he 35 as a piano genius. For a while he tried other types of 36 including looking for gold and boxing. 37 he never gave up his dream and continued to play the 38 and write music. During those 39 years, he could not always 40 to make payments on his piano. One day. bent over the keyboard he heard nothing but the music that he 41 with such rare inspiration. When he finished and looked upon, he was 42 to find that he had the audience of three men who were seated on the 43 . They said nothing and made no movement toward the piano. 44 . they stood from the floor and dug into their pockets, collected together enough 45 for the payment, placed it on the piano and walked out, empty handed. Moved by the 46 of his music, these men recognized excellence and 47 to it. Whatever you are, be a 48 one. If what you do is worth doing, if you believe that who you are is of value, then you can't afford to be 49 with mediocrity (平庸之才).When you choose the path of excellence through this life, you will bring it to your best and 50 the best it can offer in return. And you will know what it is to be satisfied. 31. A. linked B. ensured C. proved D. invented 32. A. need B. take C. make D. bring 33. A. greedy B. famous C. polite D. generous 34. A. actor B. conductor C. performer D. musician 35. A. failed B. worked C. acted D. lived 36. A. choices B. jobs C. chances D. fortunes 37. A. Or B. So C. But D. And 3 8. A. card B. violin C. basketball D. piano 39. A. hard B. memorable C. unforgettable D. wonderful 40. A. bother B. seek C. struggle D. afford 41. A. recorded B. played C. wrote D. liked 42. A. surprised B. satisfied C. ashamed D. terrified 43. A. edge B. chair C. blanket D. floor 44. A. Thus B. Therefore C. Instead D. However 45. A. money B. cost C. charge D. fee 46. A. form B. meaning C. title D. beauty 47. A. adapted B. turned C. responded D. led 48. A. honest B. good C. wise D. positive 49. A. content B. patient C. popular D. busy 50. A. experience B. present C. addict D. receive 第三部分阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2. 5分,满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在 答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Silvano Lattanzi, the master of made — in — Italy shoemaking, was totally conquered by a painting hung in the entrance hall of the very modem Rich Gate, the luxury district in Shanghai. The painting, before which he knelt down to show his admiration, is the Rich Gale Rose painted by Liu Linghua. who's known as the “Chinese Van Gogh". It was in May 2016 that Lattanzi first met Liu Linghua who was working on his 15-square-meter great piece. Lattanzi, from the country where Renaissance began, saw the painting accidentally and was immediately impressed by its beauty. He told others that he never imagined that Western oil-painting techniques could be developed so well by a Chinese and that this was the best painting he had ever seen. In the eyes of Westerners, Lattanzi is a great master of shoemaking, fashion and arts. His admiration for the Rich Gate Rose well shows the high level of Liu‘s painting. Ever since this, the two art masters of different nationalities, different ages and different cultural backgrounds have forged a profound friendship. When Lattanzi came back to China six months later with the pair of shoes he made for Liu, he insisted on delivering the shoes to Liu himself. The two friends met again al the Rich Gale and Liu Linghua presented an embroidery (刺绣)of his master work The Drunken Beauty in return. Liu expressed repeatedly that his works should be explained by painting and not the words of compliments. He does not care about the titles, though he is on par with the greatest painters. A leading light or a grand master of art, Liu pays little attention to it. Liu thinks actions are more important than words. 51.We can know from the passage that . A. Lattanzi specially came to see the painting B. Lattanzi is best at oil painting in Europe C. Liu presented an oil painting to Lattanzi in return D. the Rich Gate Rose is an excellent oil painting 52.What does Liu think of the compliments on his paintings? A. He thinks his works are worthy of the compliments. B. He cares much about the compliments. C. He thinks the words can encourage him all the time. D. He thinks the words can't well explain his works. 53.The underlined phrase “on par with” in the last paragraph roughly means A. no better than B. different from C. as good/important as D. ahead of 54.What's the right order of the following things according to the passage? a. Silvano Lattanzi and Liu Linghua became true friends. b. Silvano Lattanzi knelt down in front of the Rich Gate Rose. c. Liu Linghua presented Silvano Lattanzi an embroidery. d. Liu Linghua met Silvano Lattanzi for the first time. e. Silvano Lattanzi came back to China and met Liu Linghua again at the Rich Gate with the shoes he made for Liu. A. e-d-a-c-b B. a-c-b-d-e C. b-e-d-a-c D. b-d-a-e-c 55. What's the best title for this passage? A. Chinese Van Gogh. B. Friendship between Masters. C. Western Oil Painting. D. A Shoemaking Master. B The United States Department of Agriculture has a program called Wildlife Services. Its job is to help protect agricultural and other resources. Often that means helping farmers deal with unwelcome visitors. This organization has experts from different fields and it has set up thousands of inquiry centers all over the country where farmer can explain their difficulty and get practical help. One example from midlife Services of its work involved a farmer in Washington State in the Pacific Northwest. Several years ago, thousands of Canada geese landed on his fields. The geese began to eat his carrot crop. Biologists from the program suggested that the farmer use noise-making devices and other measures to scare the large birds away. These efforts succeeded, which made the farmer quite happy. midlife Services also has a livestock protection program. The program just offers suggestions to keep those unwelcome visitors away instead of killing them. The Wildlife Services program is part of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, or APHIS. APHIS offers some suggestions of ways to keep away predators. For example, try to keep food and water safe from wildlife. Fences may help keep out wolves, especially if the fences are at least two meters high. Experts suggest providing secure shelter for chickens, sheep and other animals that could be attacked. They also suggest using lights above places where these animals are kept. And they advise people who see wolves to chase them away by shouting, making loud noises or throwing rocks. And to protect livestock, consider using guard animals such as dogs and donkeys, which are very effective. For home gardeners, a two-meter fence might help keep out deer. To keep out rabbits, a wire fence has to be only about a half-meter high. It should extend fifteen centimeters underground to keep rabbits from digging under it. If snakes are a problem, remove dead trees and cut high grass to destroy their hiding places. Due to its effective work, ever since the Wildlife Services was started, it has been well received by farmers all over the States and neighboring countries such as Canada and Mexico. 56. What does wildlife Services aim to help farmer handle? A. Animals that attack farmers. B. People who pollute the farmland. C. People who don't care about wildlife. D. Animals that do harm to crops or livestock. 57. It can be inferred from Paragraph 2 that . A. the cabbage crop was eaten up by Canada geese B. the farmer didn't have a gun to kill those Canada geese C. Wildlife Services involves some biologists in its group D. the farmers like to eat Canada geese very much 58. What is mainly discussed in Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4? A. Ways to protect livestock. B. Ways to deal with wolves. C. How to protect crops. D. How to hunt wildlife. 59. Why should the bottom of the fence extend about 15 centimeters into the ground? A. Wolves can climb over it easily. B. The strong wind might blow it away. C. Snakes can cross it from under the ground. D. Rabbits may enter by digging holes under it. 60. Where does the passage probably come from? A. A tourist brochure. B. A science magazine. C. An entertainment program. D. A business report. C We walk, talk and sleep with our phones. But are we more — or less-connected? Just as remarkable as the power of mobility, over everything from love to global development, is how fast it all happened. It is hard to think of any tool, any instrument, any object in history with which so many developed so close a relationship so quickly as we have with our phones. Not the knife or match, the pen or page. Only money comes close—always at hand, don't leave home without it. But most of us don't take a wallet to bed with us. don't reach for it and check it every few minutes, and however useful money is in pursuit of fame, romance, revolution, it is inert compared with a smart phone — which can replace your wallet now anyway. So how do we feel about this? To better understand attitudes about mass mobility, Time, in cooperation with Qualcomm, started the Time Mobility Poll, a survey of close to 5,000 people of all age groups and income levels in eight countries. Even the best survey can be only a snapshot in time, but this is revealing a lot about both where we are now and where the mobile wave is taking us next. Not for a day — in most cases not even for an hour. In Time's Poll, 1 in 4 people check it every 30 minutes, 1 in 5 every 10 minutes. A third of respondents admitted that being without their mobile for even short periods leaves them feeling anxious. It is a form of sustenance, that constant feed of news and notes and nonsense, to be the point that twice as many people would pick their phones over their lunch if forced to choose. Three-quarters of 25-to 29-year-olds sleep with their phones. Americans are grateful for the connection and convenience their phones provide, helping them search for a lower price, navigate a strange city, expand a customer base or track their health and finances, their family and friends. But in some ways Americans are still ambivalent (矛盾的); more than 9 in 10 Brazilians and Indians agreed that being constantly connected is mostly a good thing. America's 76% was actually the lowest score. 61 .What can have a comparison with phones? A. A pen. B. A knife. C. A match. D. Money. 62.It can be inferred that a smart phone can also have the function of A. paying bills B. helping sleep C. pursuit money D. cutting things 63.Why did Time start the Time Mobility Poll? A. Because it wanted to cooperate with Qualcomm. B. Because it wanted to know where the mobile wave was taking us. C. Because it wanted to learn people's attitudes to mass mobility D. Because it wanted to know how well the mobile wave went. 64.What does Paragraph 3 mainly tell us? A. Mobile phones have become a tool to sleep with. B. Mobile phones have become a way to get news. C. Mobile phones have become a tool to order food. D. Mobile phones have become a must in daily life. 65.According to the passage. Americans are less . A. likely to show appreciation to their phones B. constantly connected than Indians C. likely to search for a lower price D. likely to find ways in a strange city 第Ⅲ卷非选择题(满分30分) 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分30分) 第一节 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读短文,并按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 As a child growing up, I have very few memories of the times when we gathered as a family to sit down and eat dinner together. I grew up in a home where both of my parents worked. My mother taught school, and my father worked during the night at a local chemical plant. There was not much time available for us to sit down to eat dinner together due to my parents' conflicting work schedules and the extracurricular activities in which my sister and I participated. It wasn't until I got married and had two children of my own that I began to realize the importance of eating dinner together. In my family there are elements that take us away from each other, day in and day out, but as a mother I feel it is my responsibility to bring us all back together again at the end of the day. In my house, dinner time is a time of thanks. I give thanks for the food we share, but I am more thankful for the family I share it with. Dinner time is a time for us to share our day, and reflect on our thoughts. It is also a time when we learn about honesty, perseverance, courage, sympathy and friendship. Above all it is a time when my family are able to connect with the ones they love. As I look at the bread basket which sits on my kitchen table, I am reminded of how the basket's tight weave resembles the tightly woven strands (线)of my family. I believe that through our family dinner, we will not only pass around the meat and potatoes, but we will also hand round virtues that will shape and mold (塑造)us so that we can forever embrace one another just as the basket embraces the bread. 66. Why couldn't the author's family eat dinner together when she was young? (No more than 15 words) 67. What does the underlined word “if in Paragraph 2 refer to? (No more than 2 words) 68. What does the author think the dinner time actually is for her family? (No more than 10 words) 69. What is the author's purpose in writing the passage? (No more than 15 words) 70. What do you think of eating dinner together with your family? Please give your reason. (No more than 25 words) 第二节书面表达(满分20分) 71.假设你是李华。你校学生会要招募一名英语导游,陪同今年寒假期间即将 来校访问的美国学生参观滨海新区。请你根据下列提示向你校负责招募工作的外 教Mr. Johnson用英语写一封自荐信。 (1) 爱好英语,口语表达能力强,曾在学校举办的英语演讲比赛中获奖; (2) 性格开朗,善于与人沟通,责任心强; (3) 滨海新区出生,熟悉本地区的历史、文化。 注意: (1) 词数:.不少于100词; (2) 可适当加入细节,使内容充实,行文连贯: (3) 信的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。 参考词汇:英语演讲比赛the English Speech Contest 滨海新区 Binhai New Area Dear Mr. Johnson, I'm writing to apply for the English-speaking guide in this winter vacation. Looking forward to your earliest reply. Yours, Li Hua 滨海新区2019-2020学年度第一学期期末检测试卷 高二年级英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分听力(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 1-5. CBABA 6-10.ACBBA 11-15. CCACA 第二部分英语知识运用 第一节单项填空(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 16-20. ABACC 21-25. BBDBB 26-30. CDDCB 第二节完形填空(共20小题:每小题1.5分,满分30分) 31-35. CABDA 36-40. BCDAD 41-45. BADCA 46-50. DCBAD 第三部分 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 51-55. DDCDB 56-60. DCADB 61-65. DACDB 第四部分写作 第一节阅读表达(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分) 66. Because of her parents, different (conflicting) working time (schedules) and children'、 extracurricular activities. 67. I he food. 68. It's a time to improve (strengthen, enhance) communication among family members. (Or: It's a time to connect (combine) family members together.) 69. To tell us it is important to have family dinner together. (Or: To tell the readers it's important to eat dinner together with family members.) 70. Open 第二节书面表达(满分20分) Dear Mr. Johnson, I'm writing to apply for the English-speaking guide in this winter vacation. I'm qualified for the position for the following reasons. First of all, as a senior high student, I'm crazy about English and fluent in oral English, which contributes to my winning the prize in the English Speech Contest held at our school. Besides, I have an optimistic personality, with an open mind and excellent communication skills to get along well with others. And with a strong sense of responsibility, I'm, able to lake on the task independently. Above all, as a native of Binhai New Area, I have a good command about its history and culture. So I'm sure that I will be the right person for the work. I would appreciate it if I'm offered the opportunity. I'll spare no effort to do it well. Looking forward to your earliest reply. Yours, Li Hua 阅读表达评分标准 分值 描述 2分 针对问题做出了正确的回答,内容淸晰、完整:同时,语法、单词拼写(含大小写)准确无 谋,且答题所用词汇数量符合题目要求。 1.5分 针对问题做出了正确的回答,内容全面,但答题所用词汇数量超岀题目要求的数量较多, 或存在个别因粗心或笔误引起的语法或单词拼写(含大小写)错误,对表达含义基本不构成 影响. 1分 语法或单词拼写基本准确,但回答内容不够全面,缺乏部分主要信息:或针对问题做岀了基本正确的回答,但组织语言过程中存在一至两处明显的语法或单词拼写错误,且错 误易引起歧义或误解。 0分 答非所问;回答过于简略或草率,难以理解或没有意义的单词堆砌. 书面表达评分标准 一、 评分原则 1.本题总分为20分,按5个档次给分。 2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后综合给分。 3.词数少于100的,从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的 连贯性及语言的得体性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。每错误书写3个单词从总分中减去1分,原则上不超过3分,重复的不计。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。标点符号错误,将视其对交际的影响程度酌情分。 6.如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。 二、 各档次的给分范围和要求 分数档 内容 语法结构和词 衔接和连贯 整体效果 17〜20分 覆盖所有内容要 点,并有适当发 挥。 应用了较丰富的语法结构 和词汇;表达准确、地道; 有个别错误,但不影响对写 作内容的理解. 有效使用衔接 手段,内容连 贯,结构紧凑。 具备较强的语言运用能力;完全达 到了预期的写作 目的. 13〜16分 覆盖所有内容要 点. 应用的语法结构和词汇能 满足任务要求;表达基本准 确,些许错误对写作内容的 理解影响不大. 应用了简单的 连接成分,全文 结构较紧凑. 达到了预期的写 作目的. 9-12 分 漏掉一些内容,覆 盖部分内容要点。 应用的语法结构和词汇能 基本满足任务要求;有一些 错误,对写作内容的理解适 成了一定影响. 应用了简单的 连接成分,内容 基本连贯. 基本达到了预期的写作目的. 5~8分 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容, 有一些无关内容. 语法结构单调.词汇项目有 限;错误较多,且在很大程 度上影响了对写作内容的 理解. 较少使用语句 间的连接成分, 内容缺少连贯 性. 信息未能清楚地传达给读者. 1-4分 明显遗漏主要内 容,写了一些无关 的内容,可能末理 解试题要求. 语法结构单调,词汇项目有 限;较多借误,严重越响了 对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯. 信息未能传达给读者. 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息;写内容无法看清.内容太少,无法评判; 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所查看更多