重庆市江津中学实验中学等七校2020届高三6月联考（三诊）英语试题

重庆市江津中学实验中学等七校2020届高三6月联考（三诊）英语试题

七校高2020级第三次诊断性考试 英语试题 本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。‎ ‎★注意事项： ‎ ‎1．答题前，务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。‎ ‎2．答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。‎ ‎3．答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。 ‎ ‎4．所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。‎ ‎5．考试结束后，将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。 ‎ 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力（共20小题；满分30分）（长寿中学）‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ 例如: How much is the shirt?‎ A. £19. 15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.‎ 答案是c。‎ ‎1. What does the man ask the woman to give him?‎ A. A table. B. Her ID card. C. A signed parcel.‎ ‎2. What will the woman do for the man?‎ A. Clean the mark on his shirt. ‎ B. Give him a ride to a wedding.‎ C. Buy him a shirt in ten minutes.‎ ‎3. How does the woman probably go to work at present?‎ A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.‎ ‎4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?‎ A. Husband and wife. B. Neighbors. C. Mother and son.‎ ‎5. How is the weather now?‎ A. Hot. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.‎ 第二节（共15小题; 每小题1.5分，满分22. 5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6. What will the man do in Singapore?‎ A. Learn from the woman. B. Travel with the woman. C. Work with John Taylor.‎ ‎7. Why does the man feel nervous about going to Singapore?‎ A. He has to work as a new manager. ‎ B. He has many projects to finish there.‎ C. He has never been out of the country.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。‎ ‎8. On what does the man ask the woman for advice?‎ A. How to keep healthy. B. Which coffee maker to buy. C. Where to get a real bargain.‎ ‎9. Where does the conversation probably take place?‎ A. At home. B. In the gym. C. In a shop.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. What are the speakers?‎ A. College students. B. School teachers. C. School administrators.‎ ‎11. What is it in the middle of the map?‎ A. The restaurant. B. The Student Union. C. The Media‎ ‎Center.‎ ‎12. What can students borrow from the old library?‎ A. Sports magazines. B. Entertainment magazines. C. Financial books.‎ 听第9段材料，回答13至16题。‎ ‎13. What made the man give up a sailing trip last weekend?‎ A. The busy schedule. B. The long distance. C. The high cost.‎ ‎14. What did Jenny do last weekend?‎ A. She participated in a competition. ‎ B. She won a football prize at the park.‎ C. She played tennis with her brother.‎ ‎15. Who got injured?‎ A. Emily. B. Joe C. Andy.‎ ‎16. What will the woman do next weekend?‎ A. Go to the beach with the man. ‎ B. Go swimming and fishing alone.‎ C. Invite the man to a basketball game.‎ 听10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. When did the speaker go to the cinema for the first time? ‎ A. In 1932. B. In ‎1937 ‎ C. In 1945.‎ ‎18. What did the speaker get from his mother?‎ A. Sweets. B. Chocolate. C. Some money.‎ ‎19. How did the speaker feel in the cinema?‎ A. Amazed. B. Bored. C. Frightened.‎ ‎20. What does the speaker say about the film in those days?‎ A. The sets were real and convincing. ‎ B. The actors' performances were great.‎ C. The special effects were unbelievable.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节, 满分40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 ‎ A（綦江中学，原创）‎ Urban household assets reach average of 3.18 million yuan in 2019‎ Editors note: Urban residents' average household assets（资产）were about 3.18 million yuan in China in 2019 and that of Beijing residents was about 8.93 million yuan, the highest in the country.‎ Distribution of household assets of urban residents l Urban residents' household assets are mainly physical assets with housing as the main part, accounting for about 80% of the total.‎ l The housing ownership rate was 96%, 1.5 sets for each household on average.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎58.4% families have one set of housing 31.0% families have two sets of housing ‎ ‎ ‎10.5% families have three or more sets of housing l Household average assets in eastern regions are higher than other parts of China, with the amount in Northeast China the lowest, accounting for about one third of East China.‎ l Top three regions with highest household assets in China in 2019 are Beiing, Shanghai and Jiangsu province. ‎ Middle-aged and young people and well-educated people are more likely to have debts l Average household debt: 512,000 yuan l Families with householders aged 65 or above are more likely to invest in financial products including wealth management, asset management and trust.‎ l The average value was about 239,000 yuan, about 1.4 times the average.‎ Household debt participation rate by householder's education level Household debt participation rate by age About 73. 1% of those aged between 26 and 35 have household debt.‎ ‎21. How many families have more than two sets of housing, according to the passage?‎ A. 58.4%. B. 31.0%. C. 10.5%. D. 96%.‎ ‎22. Which region has the highest household assets in China in 2019?‎ A. Beijing. B. Shanghai. C. Jiangsu. D. Northeast China.‎ 23. Who does probably have the most household debt, according to the report?‎ A. Li Hua, graduating from high school, 37 years old, working as a self-employed.‎ B. Sun Yi, master’s degree, 35 years old, working in a IT company.‎ C. Zhang Yinyin, college degree, 18 years old, studying in a key university.‎ D. Chen Rui, Bachelor’s degree, 69 years old, retired from the work.‎ B (江津中学，改编)‎ Earl Forlales, a graduate in Materials Science and Engineering, took inspiration from the bamboo hut his grandparents lived in outside Manila and created a house made of bamboo that can be put together in four hours to solve the chronic(长期的) shortage of affordable accommodation in the Philippines. His design won a £50.000 top prize from the Royal Institute of Chartered Surveyors (RICS) in its Cities for our Future competition.‎ His house, known as Cubo, could be produced in a week, constructed in four hours and costs £60 per square meter. Its use of bamboo—which releases 35％ more oxygen into the environment than trees—was praised by the judges. The ability of the houses to be constructed in any bamboo-producing area was one of the key attractions.‎ ‎“The world’s cities are growing all the time and there is a real need to make sure they are safe, clean and comfortable places to live in,”John Hughes, the competition’s head judge and then president at RICS, said. “As we look at our competitors, who are our next generation of leaders， I believe that real progress will be made in tackling the world’s biggest issues.‎ Forlales has already identified a suitable area of land to start building his Cubo houses. He plans to begin the work next year with experts from the RICS in an attempt to help relieve the huge pressure on housing in Manila, where a third of the 12 million population live in poor districts. He said, “I would like to thank RICS for the opportunity, and look forward to working with them to put this money to good use in Manila and then hopefully elsewhere around the world.”‎ ‎24. What contributes most to Forlales’ winning the prize？ ‎ A. The material of his house. B. The shape of his house.‎ C. The design of his house. D. The expense of his house.‎ ‎25. Which word can best replace the underline word “tackling” in Paragraph 3?‎ A. Facing. B. Treating C. Covering. D. Handling. ‎ ‎26. What can we infer about the Cubo house？‎ A. It is created by Forlales and his parents B. It is environmentally friendly and economical.‎ C. It has already been built in Forlales’ hometown.‎ D. It can be constructed in a week.‎ ‎27. Which of the following can be a suitable title？‎ A. A Competition in House‎ ‎Building B. A Man Devoted to City Development C. The Bamboo House Winning a top Prize D. The Way to Solve Housing Shortage C（大足中学，原创）‎ Earth Day was founded in 1970 as a day of education about environmental issues, and Earth Day 2020 occurs on Wednesday, April 22—the holiday’s 50th anniversary. The holiday is now a global celebration that’s sometimes extended into Earth Week, a full seven days of events focused on green living.‎ By the early 1960s, Americans were becoming aware of the effects of pollution on the environment. Rachael Carson’s 1962 bestseller Silent Spring pointed out the dangerous effects of pesticides(杀虫剂) on the American countryside. Later in the decade, a 1969 fire on Cleveland’s Cuyahoga‎ ‎River shed light on the problem of chemical waste disposal. Until that time, protecting the planet’s natural resources was not part of the national political plan. Only a small portion of the American population was familiar with environmental issues—let alone practiced-recycling.‎ Elected to the U.S. Senate in 1962, Senator(参议员) Gaylord Nelson was determined to convince the federal government that the planet was at risk. In the fall of 1969, Nelson, considered one of the leaders of the modern environmental movement, announced the Earth Day concept at a conference in Seattle and invited the entire nation to get involved. He later recalled: “The response was electric. Telegrams, letters and telephone inquiries poured in from all across the country. The American people finally had an opportunity to express their concern about what was happening to the land, rivers, lakes and air.”‎ The first Earth Day was effective at raising awareness about environmental issues and changing public ‎ attitudes. According to the Environmental Protection Agency(EPA), “Public opinions polls(投票) indicate that in May 1971, 25 percent of the U.S. public declared protecting the environment to be an important goal, a 2,500 percent increase over 1969.” ‎ Earth Day kicked off the “environmental decade with a bang,” as Senator Nelson later put it. During the 1970s, a number of important environmental laws were passed, among them the Clean Air Act, the Water Quality Improvement Act and the Endangered Species Act, etc. Another key development was the establishment of the EPA in December 1970, which was tasked with protecting human health and safeguarding the natural environment—air, water and land.‎ ‎28. What do we learn about the circumstances in America before Earth Day was founded?‎ A. The overuse of pesticides had little impact on the American countryside.‎ B. The fire on Cuyahoga‎ ‎River was caused by improper chemical waste disposal.‎ C. The government highly valued protecting the natural resources on this planet.‎ D. Only a few Americans were familiar with environmental issues and practiced-recycling.‎ ‎29. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that ________.‎ A. Nelson convinced the federal government that the planet was at risk.‎ B. Nelson organized the modern environmental movement all by himself.‎ C. The Earth Day successfully aroused the public’s interest in environmental issues.‎ D. The electric power supply had been cut off due to numerous telephone inquiries poured in.‎ ‎30. The EPA was set up to_______.‎ A. collect public opinions. B. kick off the environmental decade.‎ C. change public attitudes. D. protect human beings and nature.‎ ‎31. What do you think the author will talk about later?‎ A. Earth Day celebrations have grown and spread around the globe.‎ B. EPA protect human health and our natural environment.‎ C. The environmental laws come into effect.‎ D. Senator Nelson’s remarkable achievements.‎ D (铜梁中学，改编）‎ Have you ever walked to the shops only to find, once there, you’ve completely forgotten what you went for? Or struggled to remember the name of an old friend? For years we’ve accepted that a forgetful brain is as much a part of aging as wrinkles and gray hair. But now a new book suggests that we’ve got it ‎ all wrong.‎ According to The Secret Life of the Grown-up Brain, by science writer Barbara Strauch, when it comes to the important things, our brains actually get better with age. In fact, she argues that some studies have found that our brain hits its peak between our 40s and 60s — much later than previously thought.‎ Furthermore, rather than losing many brain cells as we age, we keep them, and even produce new ones well into middle age. For years it’s been assumed that brain, much like the body, declines with age. But the longest, largest study into what happens to people as they age suggests otherwise.‎ This continuing research has followed 6,000 people since 1956, testing them every seven years. It has found that on average, participants performed better on cognitive (认知的) tests in their 40s and 50s than they had done in their 20s. Specifically, older people did better on tests of vocabulary, verbal memory (how many words you can remember) and problem solving. Where they performed less well was number ability and perceptual speed — how fast you can push a button when ordered. However, with more complex tasks such as problem-solving and language, we are at our best at middle age and beyond. In short, researchers are now coming up with scientific proof that we do get wiser with age.‎ Neuroscientists are also finding that we are happier with aging. A recent US study found older people were much better at controlling and balancing their emotions. It is thought that when we’re younger we need to focus more on the negative aspects of life in order to learn about the possible dangers in the world, but as we get older we’ve learned our lessons and are aware that we have less time left in life: therefore, it becomes more important for us to be happy.‎ ‎32. Barbara Strauch probably agrees that ______.‎ A. the young are better at handling important things B. people’s brains work best between their 40s and 60s C. aging leads to the decline of the function of the brain D. wrinkles and gray hair are the only symbols of aging ‎33. The continuing research has found older people perform better on ______.‎ A. perceptual speed B. number ability ‎ C. vocabulary tests D. body balance ‎34. People are happier with aging because ______.‎ A. they learn to value the time left B. they know how to share feelings C. they cannot focus on negative aspects D. they do not realize the possible dangers ‎35. What is the main idea of the passage?‎ A. People get happier with age. B. People get wiser with age.‎ C. People get more forgetful with age. D. People get more self-aware with age.‎ 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）（綦江中学，原创）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ ‎24 Solar Terms: 4 things you should know about Grain Buds The traditional Chinese lunar calendar divides the year into 24 solar terms. Grain Buds (小满), the 8th solar term of a year, begins on May 20 this year, and ends on June 4. In China, the 24 solar terms were created thousands of years ago to guide agricultural production. 36 . Let's see what we can do during the "Grain Buds" period.‎ A good season for eating fish During the Grain Buds period, the summer harvest is about to begin. A saying about rain during this time mentions, "A heavy rainfall makes the river full." Because of the great increase in rainfall, rivers are full of water, which gives rise to great tasting fish and shrimp. This is a good time to enjoy them. 37 .‎ Eating herb of common sow thistle Grain Buds is a season for eating the herb (草药) of the common sow thistle, which tastes a little bitter and sour, but also sweet. It has the function of cooling the blood and detoxifying the body. It can be made into different types of dishes. 38 . Some people boil the herb with water and then squeeze out the juice, which can be used to make soup.‎ Tips on health preserving in Grain Buds ‎ 39 . The increase in temperature over this season may also give rise to all sorts of skin diseases. It is also important to exercise to keep healthy during the hot summer days. Walking, jogging and practicing tai chi are popular.‎ ‎ 40 ‎ This time is a good period of the quick growth of flowers. It is also a season when plant diseases and pests are at an all-time high, which makes caring for your garden even more critical. Flower trimming and clipping is important. And a systematic fertilized water system should be carried out. ‎ A. Key period for flower management B. It is also harvest season for fishermen C. A lot of water and extra care for wild flowers D. But the solar term culture is still useful today to guide people's lives E. It means that the seeds from the grain are becoming full but are not ripe F. People in Ningxia like to eat it blended with salt, vinegar, peppers or garlic G. High temperatures and humidity are common during the Grain Buds period 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）（合川中学）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ Most brides are angry when they are outshone(使逊色) at their own wedding. For Brenna Klemen, however, she would not have it any other way.‎ When Brenna married Brock Kendall back in April, she knew she 41 her 83-year-old grandmother to play a 42 role in the wedding. While at work as an ICU nurse, Brenna talked to a patient who 43 her to give her grandmother a very unusual role at her wedding.‎ ‎“I was ‎44 a very sick elderly woman who told me a 45 of how she was a flower girl for her grandchild,” Brenna explained.‎ Brenna certainly 46 the idea for her own wedding day, and her grandmother, who prefers to be unnamed, was all for it as well!‎ ‎“Grandma was very 47 ,” Brenna said. “She was almost in tears because she wanted to make sure she did OK on my special day.”‎ On the actual wedding day, Grandma did more than just OK, as she 48 stole the show! All 49 was on her as she walked down the aisle (过道), and the 50 moment was captured ( 拍摄) by wedding 51 Thomas Felts in images that have since 52 rapidly.‎ ‎“Every time she threw more petals (花瓣) in the air, our family cheered loudly and happily,” Brenna said, adding that all of her wedding guests 53 . This was a wedding that 54 ‎ nobody in attendance will ever 55 !‎ While everyone loved the moment, nobody was 56 than Brenna’s grandfather, who told the photographer, “That' s my flower girl.”‎ The photos have 57 the hearts of people all over the globe.‎ ‎“I have 58 that life is too short for us to think about the negatives. As my grandmother would ‎ say ‘ 59 is a choice,’” Brenna said. She is my inspiration, and I hope that she can inspire you too.‎ We’re so glad to see that Brenna got the wedding of her dreams, with a little 60 from her grandma!‎ ‎41. A. employed B. wanted C. forced D. directed ‎42. A. balanced B. protective C. similar D. major ‎43. A. promised B. encouraged C. invited D. allowed ‎44. A. competing with B. believing in C. looking after D. operating on ‎45. A. story B. theory C. test D. survey ‎46. A. understood B. loved C. abandoned D. explored ‎47. A. disappointed B. confused C. honest D. emotional ‎48. A. completely B. secretly C. carefully D. formally ‎49. A. pressure B. influence C. luck D. attention ‎50. A. decisive B. magical C. sweet D. final ‎51. A. planner B. guest C. photographer D. singer ‎52. A. spread B. shaped C. changed D. appeared ‎53. A. sighed B. laughed C. waited D. interrupted ‎54. A. commonly B. fortunately C. immediately D. absolutely ‎55. A. accept B. realize C. forget D. stop ‎56. A. prouder B. kinder C. politer D. calmer ‎57. A. united B. touched C. broken D. weakened ‎58. A. supposed B. warned C. proven D. learned ‎59. A. Forgiveness B. Success C. Happiness D. Popularity ‎60. A. guidance B. help C. benefit D. respect 第Ⅱ卷 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）（大足中学，改编）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(一个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ The International Olympic Committee took the extraordinary step Tuesday of 61 ‎ ‎(postpone) the 2020 Tokyo Games, which 62 (schedule) to start on July 24, because of the ‎ coronavirus outbreak.‎ Just how extraordinary was the step? This marks only the 63 (four) time since the first modern Olympics in 1896 that the Games have been affected 64 outside forces. The other three occasions were cancellations during the first and second World Wars. So this is the first time the Olympics have been postponed, rather than 65 (cancel).‎ ‎“The Tokyo Olympics will still be held,” Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe told reporters in Tokyo after a call with International Olympic Committee President Thomas Bach on 66 matter.‎ The IOC later said in a 67 (state) that the Games will be “rescheduled to a date beyond 2020 but not 68 (late) than 2021!”‎ This time around, it’s a pandemic(疫情), not a war, 69 is changing the Olympics schedule. The IOC said that “The leaders agreed that the Olympic Games in Tokyo could stand as a beacon of hope to the world during these times and that the Olympic flame could become the light at the end of the tunnel in which the world finds 70 (it) at present.” ‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）（重庆实验中学）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ Dear Chris,‎ Are you exciting about our coming volleyball game against No.1 Middle School next Friday? Now I will give you an introduction for the game so that you can make full preparation for it. ‎ First and foremost, the competition to take place in our school stadium will begin at 2 pm, last for roughly 3 hours. So significant was the game that it is required that everyone should present ourselves punctually. What’s more, it is necessary for you to take good rest, that will provide enough energy for you. To sum up, I wish you could live up to the expectations of our school. And I firm believe hard work will pay off it!‎ Yours truly,‎ ‎ Li Hua 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）（江津中学，改编）‎ 假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。你班的交换生Jim对诗词文化,人文地理，民族风情，悠久历史等感兴趣，准备下学期选修一门相关课程，向你征询建议。请给Jim写一封邮件，内容包括：‎ ‎1. 推荐一门选修课；‎ ‎2. 说明推荐的理由；‎ ‎3. 提出学习这门课程的建议。‎ 注意：1. 词数不少于100；‎ ‎2. 邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。‎ Dear Jim,‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Yours sincerely,‎ ‎ Li Hua 七校高2020级第三次诊断性考试 英 语 答 案 ‎1-5 BACBA 6 -10 CCBCA 11-15 CBCAB 16-20 ABCAB ‎21-25 CABAD 26-30 BCBCD 31-35 ABCAB 36-40 DBFGA ‎41-45 BDBCA 46-50 BDADC 51-55 CABDC 56-60 ABDCB ‎61. postponing； 62. were scheduled； 63. fourth； 64. by ； 65. canceled/cancelled;‎ ‎66. the； 67. statement ； 68. later； 69. that； 70. itself ‎ 短文改错 ‎71. excitingèexcited 考查-ed 形容词与-ing 形容词的区别 ‎72. forèto 考查介词的搭配，an introduction to sth. ‎ ‎73. preparationè preparations 考查名词单复数，make preparations for 固定短语 ‎74. lastè lasting 考查非谓语 ‎75. wasèis 考查时态 ‎76. ourselves è themselves 考查反身代词的逻辑 ‎77. 添加a, take + a+ good rest 考查冠词 ‎78. thatèwhich 考查非限定性定语从句 ‎79. firmèfirmly 考查副词修饰动词 ‎80. 删掉it 考查pay off 短语，得到回报是一个主动语态的不及物短语。‎ 书面表达：‎ Dear Jim,‎ I am particularly glad that you are interested in Chinese poetry,geography, nationality and histroy and eager to explore more. ‎ I think the Ancient Poetry is your best choice. By learning Chinese ancient poems, you can have an extensive knowledge of history and culture in ancient China. Also, you can feel the charm of the language by reading poems, which helps to improve your Chinese. To follow the course well, you’d better read and recite as many poems as possible. Besides, it is a good idea to search for related background knowledge so that you will fully understand the conception of poetry. ‎ What you do think of the course? I am sure you will have a lot of fun from it.‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 听力部分录音稿 ‎(Text 1)‎ W: Could you please sign for a parcel for me this afternoon?‎ M: Sure. Just give me your ID card. Oh, tell me where I’ll put your parcel.‎ W: Just leave it on the table.‎ ‎(Text 2)‎ M: I just noticed this mark on my shirt and I need it for my friend's wedding later today. How long would it take to clean it?‎ W: It looks like a small job. Well, I think it shouldn't take more than ten minutes to clean it, possibly.‎ ‎(Text 3)‎ W: I've given up using the car and I go to work on this now. I can move through the traffic easily , and riding it is good exercise for me.‎ M: Oh , that's good! I think I need a change , too. I'm tired of waiting long for a bus.‎ ‎(Text 4)‎ M: Hi, Nancy. Tom said you're looking to buy a place in the Greenwood area. It is a nice neighborhood.‎ W: It certainly is and it has some great schools , too. Tom said he would like our two kids to go to school there.‎ ‎(Text 5)‎ W: If it is still this hot tomorrow, we may as well give up the idea of having a picnic in the afternoon:‎ M: Oh, I don't think it'll last long. The forecast says it will be cloudy by mid-afternoon.‎ ‎(Text 6)‎ W: Brian, I heard from the personnel manager that you're going to be sent to Singapore. Are you looking forward to it?‎ M: Sure Jenny. This gives me a chance to work with John Taylor.‎ W: Yes. H's a good manager. You'll learn a lot from him.‎ M: I hope so. I've never been out of the country, so I'm very nervous about it.‎ ‎(Text 7)‎ M: Which coffee maker do you think I should buy? This model is cheaper , but the one over there is of higher quality. ‎ W: If you buy a cheap one you’ll just have to replace it after a short while and that will cost you more in the long run.‎ M: I think you're right. I'll go with the more expensive one. Oh , look! It is on sale! I'll get a 20 percent discount on it. ‎ W: Yes. it's a bargain.‎ M: Do you need more time or are you ready to head to the check-out line?‎ W: Let's go to the check-out line , because I still have to visit the gym today.‎ ‎(Text 8)‎ W: Mike, please tell me something about our universiy. It’s so big that I get lost sometimes.‎ M: OK , Mary. Let's look at the map. Look , the student restaurant is at the bottom right hand corner. At the bottom left hand corner is the Student Union. And between the restaurant and the Student Union is the Medical Services.‎ W: Isee. And what is it in the middle of the map?‎ M: That is the Media‎ ‎Center where you can take part in many activities.‎ W: Where is the library? I think I will use it a lot.‎ M: The new library is next to the Student Union. Students can borrow books from the library. You can also borrow some books that cannot be got from the old library, such as sports magazines and financial books, but you can borrow entertainment magazines from both.‎ ‎(Text 9)‎ W: Did you have a good weekend? I heard you went on a sailing trip.‎ M: It was too expensive , so I just went fishing. What did you do , Emily?‎ W: I wanted to play basketball , but I couldn't find anyone to play with. So I played tennis with my brother instead.‎ M: Why do dn't you ask Jenny? She’s good at sports. Oh no. that’s right. She was busy at the park. There was a badminton competition.‎ W: I hope she won a prize. Did you hear about Joe? He broke his leg playing football.‎ M: Oh, no. That will stop him going swimming with me next weekend.‎ W: Are you going to the beach? I'll come with you. I love it there. Would you like to take me there?‎ M: Of course. The more people the better. We can ask Andy as well. He watched a lot of films at home this weekend, but he says he wants to do something outside next weekend:‎ W: Great. I'll ask him if he wants to come.‎ ‎(Text 10)‎ M: You want to know the first time I went to the cinema? Well, I will talk about it now. It was a Saturday morning in 1937. I was five years old. My father took me to the cinema that very afternoon:‎ The size of it amazed me, and I loved the atmosphere immediately. In those days there was a girl who showed you to your seats in the dark if you arrived after the film had started and she was there with her boxes of sweets and icecream in the breaks. My mother had given me some money before we left home , so I queued up and bought myself some chocolate.‎ But the film itself was the most important thing. When the curtains opened and the lights went down , I couldn't believe my eyes. There were sudden changes of scenes that took my breakh away, and action that was shown from many diferent angles. Obviously audiences are used to all that now. These days film scenes only last a few seconds and are filled with special effects. In those days one scene could last for several minutes. And of course the sets were very basic , if you compare them to today's. But the performances the actors gave were wonderful. I had never experienced anything like it and I loved the ‎ cinema from that point on. And now I'm a film director.‎ 部分解析：‎ C篇【解析】本文是篇说明文，主要介绍地球日的起源及发起初期的历史。‎ ‎28. B 细节理解题。根据第二段中的Later in the decade, a 1969 fire on Cleveland’s Cuyahoga River shed light on the problem of chemical waste disposal.可知Cuyahoga River大火是化学废物处理不当造成的。‎ ‎29. C 推理判断题。根据第三段中的He later recalled: “The response was electric. Telegrams, letters and telephone inquiries poured in from all across the country. The American people finally had an opportunity to express their concern about what was happening to the land, rivers, lakes and air.”反应令人震惊，来自全国各地的电报、信件和电话询问蜂拥而至，说明美国人民非常关注环保。‎ ‎30. D 细节理解题。根据最后一段Another key development was the establishment of the EPA in December 1970, which was tasked with protecting human health and safeguarding the natural environment—air, water and land.可知环保署的任务是保护人类健康和保护空气、水和土地等自然环境。‎ ‎31. A. 推理判断题。前面几段重点介绍了地球日的起源及发起初期的历史，接下来作者应该以此为主线，继续谈论地球日庆祝活动在世界各地不断发展壮大 D篇 ‎32. B根据题干的Barbara Strauch定位在文章第二段第二行,文章的意思是当提到重要的事情时,我们的大脑随着年龄的增长会变得更好。实际上,她主张很多研究已经发现我们大脑的智力水平在40 到60 岁时达到顶峰。所以选B。另外,A、  B、C在第二段均未提及,且与文中主旨不符。‎ ‎33. C 根据题干的The continuing research定位到文章第四段  第一行。第二行从It has found开始介绍这个research的结论,倒数第二行的Specifically, order people did better on tests of vocabulary说特别是年长的人在词汇测试上做的更好,所以选C。‎ ‎34. A 根据题干 happier 定位到文中最后一个单词。向前找关键信息会看到but as we get older…… 意为但是当我们逐渐变老,我们已经经历了很多且下意识的  认识到我们剩下的时间已经不多了,因此快乐对我们而言变得更加重要,所以选A。‎ ‎35. B 根据文章第一段末的转折But now a new book suggests that we’ve got it all wrong.对应转折前说的随着年龄的增长人会变得健忘,所以选B。‎ 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 本文是记叙文。一位奶奶为孙女当花童,在孙女的婚礼上大出风头,但同时也为孙女和参加婚礼的亲朋好友们留下了快乐的回忆。‎ ‎41. B。42. D。根据第一段Most brides are angry .. any other way和下文中对Brenna为什么会让奶奶当自己的花童及奶奶在她的婚礼上大出风头的描述可知, Brenna“想(wanted)”让她83岁的奶奶在自己的婚礼上扮演一个“重要的(major)”角色。‎ ‎43. B。44. C。45. A。根据第二段中的While at work as an ICU nurse及第三段中的a very sick elderly woman who told me... how she was a flower girl for her grandchild可知, Brenna在ICU病房做护士时遇到一位病人,这位病人“鼓励(encouraged)”她让她的奶奶在婚礼上扮演一个不同寻常的角色。当时，Brenna“照顾着(looking after)”这位病重的老太太,而她则给Brenna讲述了自己为孙女当花童的“故事(story)”。‎ ‎46. B.根据下文中对Brenna的奶奶在她的婚礼上当花童的描述可知,Brenna确实很“喜欢(loved)”这个主意。‎ ‎47. D。根据空后的She was almost in tears because she wanted to make sure she did OK onmy special day可知, Brenna的奶奶“情绪激动(emotional)”。‎ ‎48. A。49. D。根据本段中的On the actual wedding day, Grandma did more than just OK及stole the show可知,在婚礼当天,Brenna的奶奶不仅做得很好,而且“完全(completely)”抢了新人的风头。当她走过过道时,所有人的“注意力(attention)”都在她的身上。‎ ‎50. C。根据下文中对参加婚礼的人们都很开心的描述可知,这一“温馨的(sweet)”时刻被婚礼摄影师拍摄了下来。‎ ‎51. C。根据本段中的was captured by wedding ...及第八段中的Brenna’s grandfather, who told the photographer可知,这一幕被婚礼“摄影师(photographer)”Thomas Felts拍了下来。‎ ‎52. A。第九段中的The photos ... the hearts of people all over the globe可知,这张照片很快就被“传播( spread)”开来。‎ ‎53. B。根据本段中的Every time she threw more petals in the air, our family cheered loudly and happily 及第八段中的everyone loved the moment可知,每当Brenna的奶奶扔出更多的花瓣时,家里人都会开心地高声欢呼,而且参加婚礼的客人们也都开心地“笑着(laughed)”。‎ ‎54. D。55.C。根据上文中对婚礼当天快乐气氛的描述可知，这“绝对( absolutely)”是一场令人难“忘( forget)”的婚礼。‎ ‎56. A。根据本段中的Brenna’s grandfather, who told the photographer,“That’s my flower girl."可知, Brenna的爷爷比任何人都要“骄傲(prouder)”。‎ ‎57. B。根据第八段中的every one loved the moment及本段中的the hearts of people all over the globe可知,这张照片“触动了(touched)”全世界人们的心。‎ ‎58. D。59.C。根据本段中的life is too short for us to think about the negatives及As my grandmother would say ... 可知,作者“明白了(learned)”人生苦短，不要总是沉溺在悲伤中的道理。“快乐( Happiness)”是一种选择。‎ ‎60. B。根据上文中对Brenna的奶奶为她当花童,给Brenna留下美好回忆的描述可知,Brenna在奶奶的“帮助(help)”下拥有了一场梦想中的婚礼。‎ 语法填空：‎ ‎【文章大意】本文主要讲述了因为疫情2020年的东京奥运会被推迟。‎ ‎61. postponing ,介词后用了动名词结构做宾语。 ‎ ‎62. were scheduled，考查从句谓语部分，主要涉及了主谓一致和被动语态，which指代前面的the 2020 Tokyo Games，所以从汇聚谓语要用复数的被动结构。 ‎ ‎63. fourth，此空应用序数词 。表示第四次。 ‎ ‎64. by ，考查介词，“被...影响”。 ‎ ‎65. canceled/cancelled，此空和前面的postponed对应。 ‎ ‎66. the ，考查名词前的冠词，这里是特指这件事情，用定冠词the。 ‎ ‎67. statement ，考查词性转换，冠词后的中心词用名词形式。 ‎ ‎68. later ，考查比较级，因后面出现了明显标志词than。 ‎ ‎69. that，该句考查了强调句型的结构，学生需要仔细分析判断。 ‎ ‎70.itself，考查了反身代词的用法。 ‎