2017-2018学年湖南省株洲市醴陵一中、攸县一中高二下学期期中联考英语试题 Word版

2017-2018学年湖南省株洲市醴陵一中、攸县一中高二下学期期中联考英语试题 Word版

‎2017-2018学年湖南省株洲市醴陵一中、攸县一中高二下学期期中联考英语试题 总分：150分 时量：120分钟 考试时间：2018年5月6日 姓名：__________ 考号:__________‎ 注意事项：‎ ‎1.本试卷由四个部分组成。其中，第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题。第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。‎ ‎2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。‎ ‎3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。‎ 第一部分　听力(共两节，满分30分)‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What does the woman think of the car journey? ‎ ‎ A. It’s too long. B. It’s very exciting. C. It’s rather dangerous.‎ ‎2. Why is John late for school?‎ ‎ A. He was stuck in traffic. B. He hurt his head. C. He did a good deed.‎ ‎3. What are the speakers talking about? ‎ ‎ A. A farm. B. Some houses. C. A corn field.‎ ‎4. What does the man say about the movie? ‎ ‎ A. It’s horrible. B. It’s amusing. C. It’s not good.‎ ‎5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? ‎ ‎ A. Acquaintances. B. Classmates. C. A couple.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6. What do we know from the conversation? ‎ A. The woman will be free tomorrow.‎ B. The man will help the woman tomorrow.‎ C. The woman will have workers to do the job. ‎ ‎7. What does the woman probably think of the man?‎ A. Considerate. B. Annoying. C. Stubborn.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。‎ ‎8. Who plans to get more people for the team? ‎ A. Sue. B. Ben. C. Karen.‎ ‎9. What are going to take place in the near future? ‎ A. Tennis matches. B. Football matches. C. Softball matches.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. What will the woman do? ‎ A. Sell new game products. ‎ B. Make a presentation. ‎ C. Give away luggage carts.‎ ‎11. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? ‎ A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Colleagues.‎ ‎12. Where are the speakers? ‎ A. In the company. B. In the hotel. C. In the lecture hall.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. What is Tina doing?‎ A. Doing some reading. ‎ B. Having a holiday. ‎ C. Surfing the Internet.‎ ‎14. What does the man ask the woman to do?‎ A. To buy a cake and ice cream. ‎ B. To help Sandy. ‎ C. To attend the birthday party.‎ ‎15. Who can’t eat chocolate?‎ A. Tina. B. Sandy. C. The man.‎ ‎16. Which place will the woman go to next?‎ A. The store on Abbey Road.‎ B. The store on Olive Avenue. ‎ C. The supermarket on Downing Street.‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. What do we know about the travel destination, Costa Rica?‎ A. It’s suitable for newly-married couples.‎ B. It’s suitable for old people.‎ C. It’s family-friendly.‎ ‎18. What language do Costa Rican people probably speak?‎ ‎ A. English. B. Spanish. C. French.‎ ‎19. What can travelers see in Costa Rica?‎ ‎ A. Sand beaches. B. Dead volcanoes. C. Fish farms.‎ ‎20. How much will it cost a family to travel in Costa Rica?‎ A. 80 dollars. ‎ B. 185 dollars. ‎ C. Half the cost of a trip to Disneyland. ‎ 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)‎ 第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A Dutch masters exhibition in Beijing The 17th century Dutch Golden Age had several significant artists and a range of great pieces ‎ produced during the period— including Jan Vermeer’ s Young Woman at Virginal, Jan Lievens ’ Boy in a Cape, and Turban and Rembrandt ’ s Self-Portrait with Shaded Eyes.‎ Some of the most refined examples of the time, including the three pieces mentioned above, will make their debut (首次亮相) in China as part of a world tour of The Leiden Collection.‎ If you go:‎ ‎9 a.m. — 5 p.m., June 17— Sept 3 (closed on Mondays). National Museum of China, Wusi Avenue, Dongcheng district. 010-6400-1476.‎ Ticket: 50 yuan ($7)‎ The Age of Mechanical Reproduction The Age of Mechanical Reproduction, the latest exhibition at the Riverside Art Museum, features 41 artworks of US pop icon Andy Warhol, covering art installations, paintings and photographs. Warhol’ s well-known installation Electric Chair is a highlight of the show, which is also its debut in Asia.‎ If you go:‎ ‎10 a.m. — 5 p.m., through August 28 (closed on Mondays). The Riverside Art Museum, Hongyan Road, Chaoyang district. 010-5309-2062.‎ Ticket: 60 yuan Back with a band Beijing-based band Escape Plan will hold a concert in Beijing this weekend. The band is most famous for the song The Brightest Star in the Night Sky.‎ If you go:‎ ‎7:30 p.m., June 17. Beijing Worker’ s Gymnasium, Gongti Beilu, Chaoyang district. 400-610-3721.‎ Ticket: 280— 980 yuan Purple clay teapots Yixing purple clay potteries are a vital part of Chinese pottery culture and have been included in China’ s list of national intangible cultural heritage. A selection of more than 80 purple clay teapots will go on display at the Poly Art Museum starting Friday. The exhibit will include a range of delicate teapot works of Ji Yishun, Wang Xiaolong and Gao Lijun, who are all inheritors(继承人) the time-honored (历史悠久的) pottery handicraft.‎ If you go:‎ ‎9:30 a.m.— 4:30 p.m. (closed on Sundays), through June 30. Poly Art Museum, New Poly Plaza, Chaoyangmen North Street 9010-6500-8117.‎ Ticket: 20 yuan ‎21. What do Dutch masters exhibition in Beijing and The Age of Mechanical Reproduction have in common?‎ A. Their total exhibition time. B. They aren’t open on Mondays.‎ C. Their ticket prices. D. Their exhibition places. ‎ ‎22. If you are fond of the performance of Escape Plan, which number can you contact to book a ticket in advance?‎ A. 010-5309-2062. B. 010-6500-8117. C. 010-6400-1476. D. 400-610-3721.‎ ‎23. Where can you go and enjoy an exhibition but spend less money?‎ A. Poly Art Museum, New Poly Plaza. B. National Museum of China.‎ C. The Riverside Art Museum. D. Beijing Workers’ Gymnasium.‎ B ‎ Stephen Hawking was born in Oxford, England on 8th January, 1942. He went to school in St Allbans, a small city near London. Although he did well, he was never top of his class. After leaving school, Hawking went first to Oxford University where he studied physics and then went to Cambridge University where he studied cosmology(宇宙学). As he himself admits, he didn’t work hard. He was a very lazy student, and did very little work. However, he still got high marks.‎ It was at the age of 20 that Hawking first noticed something was wrong with him. He started to bump into things. When he visited his family at Christmas time, his mother was so worried that she made him see a doctor. Hawking was sent to hospital for tests. Finally, the result came back. Hawking had motor neuron disease（运动神经元病）, a terminal illness which would make him unable to speak, breathe or move without the help of a machine. Doctors said they had no way to help him. He would die before 23.‎ At first, Hawking became very depressed. After a while, though, he began to see his life in a different way. As he later wrote,“Before my illness was diagnosed(诊断), I had been very bored with life. There had not seemed to be anything worth doing. But shortly after I came out of hospital,‎ ‎ I suddenly realized that there were a lot of worthwhile things I could do.”Then Hawking got married and found a job at Cambridge University as a professor. He strongly believes that his story shows that nobody, however bad their situation is, should lose hope.“Life is not fair.”He once said.“You just have to do the best you can in your own situation.”‎ ‎24. In the university, Stephen Hawking _______.‎ A. worked hard B. studied art and physics C. was the best student in his class D. was lazy and did very little work ‎25. As to his illness, Stephen Hawking _______.‎ A. stayed calm when he first knew it ‎ B. hid the truth from his parents C. noticed some symptoms before he was diagnosed   ‎ D. didn’t care about it at all ‎26. The underlined word “terminal” in paragraph 2 means _______.‎ A. unexplained  B. unavoidable  C. common  D. incurable ‎27. What does the author think of Stephen Hawking?‎ A. humorous B. optimistic C. patient D. pessimistic C I spent most of my twenties working for the National Park Service, and I lived a wide variety of government housing, including several shabby but appealing old houses where the wild creatures outnumbered humans. Sometimes I wondered, lying awake at night, how many hearts beat inside those walls. With all that lovely national park habitat protected for their use, why did the animals need to live in my house?‎ My latest essay “The indoor wilds at outdoor parks,” revisits my experiences with wild (non-human!) roommates and officemates in Rocky Mountain National Park. At first, they were considered annoying but not dangerous. Attitudes changed dramatically when hantavirus (汉他病毒) came on the scene, and suddenly those cute, non-housebroken deer mice became a threat. When I moved on to Canyonlands National Park, I found that every effort had been made to seal off my house from four-footed intruders (入侵者). These efforts mostly worked and later employees moved into new housing. But somehow a rat still managed to chew its way through the floor and drown ‎ itself in my toilet. I’m not even going to get started about my coworkers’ experiences with other much scarier animals.‎ The Beaver Meadows Vistor Center in the story was designed by Tailiesin Associated Architects, Frank Lloyed Wright’s firm, after Wright’s death. Working there, I always thought the building was strange. I recently revisited the building while researching a children’s book I am writing about the park. I think I get it now, at least a little.‎ ‎28. What does the underlined word “their” in Paragraph 1 refer to?‎ A. Some park visitors’. B. Endangered animals’.‎ C. The author’s coworkers’. D. The author’s wild roommates’.‎ ‎29. Why did people show a change in attitude towards deer mice?‎ A. Because a virus was spreading.‎ B. Because people were hurt by them.‎ C. Because people saw a really cute one.‎ D. Because they protected people’s houses.‎ ‎30. What can we infer about the living conditions of the author’s coworkers?‎ A. They were unknown to the author. ‎ B. They were acceptable to the author.‎ C. They were no better than the author’s. ‎ D. They were much better than the author’s.‎ ‎31. After visiting the Beaver Meadows Vistor Center again, the author .‎ A. could appreciate it better B. finished a children’s book C. did research on national parks D. knew it was designed by Wright D Increasing numbers of airports, especially in Europe, are promoting a “silent airport” idea. It is to reduce noise pollution, such as airport-wide announcements, without sacrificing timely and helpful updates of information.‎ International airports were once characterized by their high voices, competing gate announcements and so on.‎ This is all changing. Angela Gittens, director general of Airports Council International (ACI),‎ ‎ says there is a growing desire among airports and airlines they serve to “create a calm, relaxed atmosphere” without being disturbed by announcements. “Passengers can relax while they wait for their flight to board in the common airside lounges (休闲区), and food and drink areas,” she says.‎ In June, Helsinki Airport in Finland — a country where the tourism slogan is “Silence, Please” — became the most recent airport to adopt the silent concept. As part of its commitment to quieting things down, announcements for flights are made only in boarding gate areas. Lost track of time in the shop? Too bad. Nobody’s going to call you to your flight, as announcements in all terminals will be made only in exceptional emergency circumstances.‎ Heikki Koski, vice president of Helsinki Airport, says that improved flight information display systems and interactive kiosks (交互式自助服务机), together with advances in mobile technology, are changing the way airports communicate with passengers. At Munich Airport, InfoGate kiosks allow for video-based, face-to-face conversation with a live customer service representative in the traveler’s language of choice. Interactive signs, on the other hand, give directions at the touch of finger. Passengers can tap a “you are here” display to get directions and approximate walking times to their destinations.‎ Of course, an airport will never be as silent as a temple. There will continue to be a need for airport-wide emergency announcements, along with boarding calls. But at silent airports, the latter can be restricted to specific gates, as has been adopted in Helsinki.‎ ‎32. What is Angela Gittens’ opinion on the silent airport concept?‎ A. It makes airport noise-free.‎ B. It is intended for passengers’ benefit.‎ C. It has changed international airports’ reputation.‎ D. It has encouraged the catering industry in airports.‎ ‎33. What should passengers pay close attention to at Helsinki Airport?‎ A. Their boarding time. ‎ B. Finland’s tourism slogan.‎ C. The shops’ opening hours. ‎ D. The “you are here” display.‎ ‎34. Why is Munich Airport mentioned in the text?‎ A. To show its popularity. ‎ B. To introduce InfoGate kiosks.‎ C. To prove Heikki Koski’s words. ‎ D. To be compared with Helsinki Airport.‎ ‎35. What is the best title for the text?‎ A. Technology helps airports become interactive ‎ B. Airports can be as quiet as temples C. Silent airports all around the world D. Silence, please. This is an airport!‎ 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) ‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ ‎ Every culture has its own unwritten list of behavior that is acceptable. Every society also has its taboos，or types of behavior that are considered a violation of good manners.‎ The word taboo comes from the Tongan language and is used in modern English to describe verbal and nonverbal behavior that is forbidden or to be avoided. 36 They tend to be specific to a culture or country，and usually form around a group’s values and beliefs. What is considered acceptable behavior in one country may be a serious taboo in another.‎ Verbal taboos usually involve topics that people believe are too private to talk about publicly，or relate to one’s manner of speaking. In many cultures，for example，it is considered bad manners to discuss subjects such as sex or religion in public. In some countries, too much volume of one’s voice may annoy people. 37 .‎ ‎___38 For example, one of the biggest differences among many Western, Asian, and African cultures is the use of eye contact. In the US, people make eye contact when they talk to others. ___39__ In many Asian and African cultures, however, children are taught to lower their eyes when talking to their elders, or those of higher rank, as a way to show respect.‎ Certain gestures made with the hands can have very different meanings depending on the country you are in. Crossing your middle finger over your forefinger is the sign for good luck in many Western countries. 40 Also, in some Asian countries, moving your hands a lot while talking，or “talking with your hands”, is considered unsuitable.‎ Behavior that is acceptable and nonoffensive in one culture can be highly offensive in another. When visiting a foreign country, be aware of some of the basic differences, as this will help to ensure a more enjoyable trip.‎ A. Nonverbal taboos usually relate to body language.‎ B．In Vietnam and Argentina, however, it is a rude gesture.‎ C．In spite of what some people may think, taboos are not universal.‎ D．Cancer is a taboo subject and people are frightened to talk openly about it.‎ E．Learn a country’s customs so that you don’t hurt the local people unconsciously.‎ F．They might think that someone who is speaking or laughing loudly is rude or aggressive.‎ G．If a person avoids eye contact，others might think they are being dishonest or unconfident.‎ 第三部分　语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)‎ 第一节完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ It was a summer evening almost 30 years ago. I was rocking my baby boy in my arms and when he fell asleep I put him 41 down into his crib for the night. My wife,   42  from a long day of work, was half napping（小睡）and half watching TV in the living room. Not caring for the  43  ,I poured myself a glass of iced tea in the kitchen, took a lawn（草坪） 44___ off our porch（门廊）, and walked into the front yard to 45 the stars.     As soon as I came into the 46 , I heard the sweet sound of  47  floated through the air. On the hill next to our house, the neighbor's children were 48 fireflies, hoping to catch one in a jar. I sat down in my chair and 49  them for a while. They ran very fast, ___50 , they couldn't seem to catch the slow moving lighting bugs.  51 , exhausted they both sat down in the grass and 52  watched the little guys flying through the air, blinking their lights on and off. I 53 my tea and joined them in their 54 . It felt so good getting to see one of many miracles lighting up my front yard on a  55  night. It made me feel a part of something far greater than myself.     Over the years since then, I have appreciated and 56 all of the glorious light in this world. I have taken it into my heart and welcomed it into my soul. I have found it in nature, books, ‎ music, animals, prayer, and most of all in the lives of those around me. I have never tried to catch this 57 , however. I have learned that true light and true love must come from 58 . It must flow freely between us and can't be 59  in a jar. The next time you see some fireflies then, take a seat and enjoy their light. Let them remind you to shine your own light as well. Let them remind you that you, too, are one of 60 in this world.‎ ‎41.‎ A. gently B. quickly C. forcefully ‎ D. silently ‎42.‎ A. broken down B. tired out C. calmed down ‎ D. made out ‎43.‎ A. baby B. film C. show D. atmosphere ‎44.‎ A. bench B. basket ‎ C. cushion D. chair ‎45.‎ A. stare at ‎ B. point to ‎ C. smile to D. glance at ‎46.‎ A. field ‎ B. farm C. yard ‎ D. street ‎47.‎ A. argument ‎ B. laughter ‎ C. fight ‎ D. scream ‎48.‎ A. chasing ‎ B. killing C. admiring ‎ D. teasing ‎49.‎ A. ignored B. comforted ‎ C. calmed ‎ D. watched ‎50.‎ A. otherwise ‎ B. however ‎ C. meanwhile D. somewhat ‎51.‎ A. Frequently B. Purposefully ‎ C. Happily D. Eventually ‎52.‎ A. also ‎ B. just C. yet D. still ‎53.‎ A. poured ‎ B. made ‎ C. drank D. prepared ‎54.‎ A. appreciation B. competition ‎ C. discussion D. celebration ‎55.‎ A. winter ‎ B. autumn C. summer ‎ D. spring ‎56.‎ A. flashed ‎ B. shone C. preserved D. enjoyed ‎57.‎ A. light B. bug C. jar ‎ D. practice ‎58.‎ A. near B. upon ‎ C. within D. around ‎59.‎ A. left B. caught ‎ C. ignored D. seen ‎60.‎ A. passers-by ‎ B. rescuers C. discovers D. miracles 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ ‎“Fire! Fire!” What terrible words to hear when one wakes up. I jumped out of bed, opened the door and 61 _____ ___(step) outside the room. It was full of thick smoke.‎ I began to run, but as I was still only half-awake, I did not go towards the stairs. Instead, I went ‎ ‎62 ___ a wrong direction. The smoke grew much 63_____ (thick) and I could see 64________ (burn) wood all around me. I found an open door and ran into a room to get to the window. But 65 ______ I could reach it, one of my 66______ (foot) was caught in something soft and I fell down. The thing that made me fall felt like a bundle (包) of clothes, and I picked it up 67 ________ (protect) my face from the smoke and heat.‎ As I reached the cold air outside, my bundle of clothes gave out 68 ___ thin cry. I nearly dropped 69 ____ with surprise. Then I found myself in a crowd gathering in the street. A woman in her night dress and a borrowed man’s coat screamed as she saw me and came running to me 70 _____ (crazy).‎ She was the Mayor’s wife, and I had saved her baby.‎ 第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)‎ 第一节 短文改错(共10小题；每小题l分，满分10分)‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ At the age of twelve, I get a nice bike as a birthday gift. So excited was I that I couldn’t wait for to try my hand at riding it. However, it was harder than expecting. The bike seemed too heavy and difficulty to control. Worse still, I took many fall off the bike. I was about to give up while my father came and encouraged me to keep going. With her help and encouragement, I did better and better. Look back, I feel if I had lost heart, I wouldn’t be able to ride a bike.‎ Actual, we can’t succeed in everything we try. What’s important is we should stick at it.‎ 第二节 ‎ 书面表达(满分25分)‎ 本市的美国留学生Tom在网上发帖，想结识一位中国朋 友帮助他学习汉语和了解中国文化。假如你是光明中学的李华，得知消息后你愿意帮助Tom，并想约他见面，送给他一本好书。请你给Tom发一封电子邮件，其要点包括：‎ ‎1.表达你的意愿和打算；‎ ‎2.简单介绍书的内容（关于中国的传统节日、习俗和饮食等）；‎ ‎3.约定见面的时间和地点。‎ 注意：1.词数100左右；‎ ‎2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；‎ ‎3.开头和结尾已经写好。‎ Dear Tom,‎ I'm Li Hua from Guangming High school. ‎ ‎ ‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 醴陵一中、攸县一中2018年上期高二期中联考英语 参考答案及评分说明 ‎ ‎ 听力 ‎1-5: ACABC 6-10: CABCB 11-15: ABCAB 16-20:ACBAC 阅读理解 ‎21-23: BDA 24-27: DCDB 28-31: DACA 32-35: BACD 36-40: CFAGB ‎ 完形填空 ‎41-45: ABCDA CBADB DBCAC DACBD 语法填空 ‎61. stepped 62. in 63. thicker 64. burning 65. before ‎ ‎66. feet 67. to protect 68. a 69. it 70. crazily 短文改错 ‎1. get---got 2. 删除couldn’t wait for to try中的 for ‎ ‎3. expecting—expected 4. difficulty—difficult 5. fall—falls ‎ ‎6. while—when 7. her—his 8. Look--Looking ‎ ‎9. Actual—Actually 10. is 和we之间加 that 书面表达 One possible version:‎ Dear Tom,‎ I'm Li Hua from Guangming High school. I learned from the Internet that you wish to improve your Chinese and know more about Chinese culture. I'd like very much to be your friend and help you.‎ Here I have a good book for you. It's about Chinese traditional festivals, customs and foods and so on. The book is a window through which you can get to know Chinese culture, so I think you will like it.‎ Now I hope to see you and give you the book. If it is convenient to you, shall we meet at 5:30‎ ‎ tomorrow afternoon at our school gate? If not, let's try to find another time or place that is suitable for both of us.‎ Looking forward to your early reply.‎ Best wishes.‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 作文评分标准 一、评分原则 ‎1．本题满分为25分，按5个档次给分。‎ ‎2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分，可精确到0.5分。‎ ‎3．评分重点：内容要点、语言准确，适当兼顾词汇运用和语法结构的丰富性以及上下文的连贯性。‎ ‎4．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。‎ ‎5．如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。‎ 二、内容要点 ‎1.表达你的意愿和打算；‎ ‎2.简单介绍书的内容（关于中国的传统节日、习俗和饮食等）；‎ ‎3.约定见面的时间和地点。‎ 三、各档给分范围及要求 第五档（21-25分）‎ 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎——覆盖所有内容要点。‎ ‎——应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。‎ ‎——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。‎ ‎——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ 完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第四档（16-20分）‎ 完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎——虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ ‎——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。‎ ‎——应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。‎ 第三档（11-15分）‎ 基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。‎ ‎——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ ‎——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。‎ ‎——应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。‎ 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第二档（6-10分）‎ 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。‎ ‎——语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。‎ ‎——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。‎ ‎——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。‎ 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ 第一档（1-5分）‎ 未完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎——明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。‎ ‎——语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。‎ ‎——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。‎ ‎——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。‎ 信息未能传达给读者。‎ ‎0分 未能传达给读者任何信息，内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。‎ 四、说明 ‎1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。‎ ‎2．应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。‎ ‎ ‎ 部分试题简析：‎ 阅读理解A篇 ‎【语篇导读】本文是一则应用文。主要介绍了几个展览和一个音乐会的有关情况,包括其主题、举办的时间、地点和联系方式等。‎ ‎21.B【解析】细节理解题。根据这两个展览中的信息:( closed on Mondays)可知,他们的共同之处是:每逢星期一关闭(不营业)。其余各项的说法均与原文内容不符。故正确答案为B。‎ ‎22.D【解析】细节理解题。在“ Back with a bang”中提到了“ Beijing- based band Escape Plan will..”。由此可知,应该联系400-610-3721这个电话号码提前预定票。故正确答案为D。‎ ‎23.A【解析】细细节理解题。根据各展览和音乐会的门票价格可以看出, Purple clay teapots展览的票价最低。而该展览的地点是 Poly Art Museum, New PolyPlaza。故正确答案为A。‎ ‎ ‎ 阅读理解B篇 ‎【语篇导读】本文属于人物故事类，讲述了著名的科学家Stephen Hawking 的生平以及他在患病前后的态度转变。‎ ‎24. D 细节题。根据文章第一段Hawking went first to Oxford University where he studied physics and then went to Cambridge University where he studied cosmology(宇宙学). As he himself admits, he didn’t work hard. He was a very lazy student, and did very little work. 可知。‎ ‎25. C 细节加推理。根据文章第二段的第一、二句话可推知答案。It was at the age of 20 that Hawking first noticed something was wrong with him. He started to bump into things. 由第二段其他内容可排除B选项，由第三段的第一句At first, Hawking became very depressed.可排除答案A和D。‎ ‎26. D根据上下文推测单词含义。根据文章第二段的语句Doctors said they had no way to help him. He would die before 23.可知答案。‎ ‎27. B 推断作者的态度观点题。由第三段Stephen Hawking所讲的话可归纳出B项。‎ ‎ ‎ 阅读理解C篇 ‎【语篇导读】本文属于记叙文，文章回忆作者曾在国家公园工作，与野生动物共处一室的经历，尽管条件艰苦，再次造访此地却倍感收获。‎ ‎28. D 推理判断题。根据文章第一段中…I lived a wide variety of government housing, including several shabby but appealing old houses where the wild creatures outnumbered humans. 以及第二段第一句可知。‎ ‎29. A 细节题。由第二段Attitudes changed dramatically when hantavirus (汉他病毒) came on the scene, and suddenly those cute, non-housebroken deer mice became a threat.可知。‎ ‎30. C推理判断题。由文章第二段最后一句I’m not even going to get started about my coworkers’ experiences with other much scarier animals.可推知答案。‎ ‎31. A 细节加推理。由最后一段I recently revisited the building while researching a children’s book I am writing about the park. I think I get it now, at least a little.可知。‎ ‎ ‎ 阅读理解D篇 ‎【语篇导读】本文属于说明文，介绍在欧洲利用先进的技术推广“无声机场”，以便给乘客提供更舒适的机场环境。‎ ‎32. B 推理判断题。由文章第三段中…to “create a calm, relaxed atmosphere” without being disturbed by announcements. “Passengers can relax while they wait for their flight to board in the common airside lounges (休闲区), and food and drink areas,”可知。‎ ‎33. A 推理判断题。根据文章第四段中As part of its commitment to quieting things down, announcements for flights are made only in boarding gate areas.一句可知。 ‎ ‎34. C 推理判断理。根据文章第五段所讲内容可知答案。‎ ‎35. D 确定标题（归纳主旨大意）由全文大意结合第一段和最后一段可确定最佳标题为D。 ‎ ‎ ‎ 完形填空 ‎【语篇导读】当你在夜晚看到萤火虫在空中飞行时,坐下来静静地去欣赏它们,而不是把它们捉住放进罐子里。萤火虫发出的丝丝光亮给黑暗的世界带来了一缕光明。真正的光和爱是来自人的内心深处,这种光和爱应该在你我之间自由地流淌,而不是被束缚。让我们每个人都发出自己的光,让我们每个人都成为这个世界上的一个奇迹。‎ ‎41.A【解析】根据常识,孩子睡着了,“我”应是“轻轻地( gently)”把他放到床上。‎ ‎42.B【解析】根根据本句中的“ from a long day of work was half napping(小睡)..”可知,妻子在一天的工作之后很疲倦( tired out)。‎ ‎43.C【解析】上文提到“.. and half watching TV in the living room.”可知,当时“我”‎ 对电视节目(show)不感兴趣。‎ ‎44.D【解析】于是“我”倒了一杯冰茶,从走廊拿了一把椅子( chair)去前院。下文第49空前的“I sat down in my chair..”一句中的 chair有提示。‎ ‎45.A【解析】走到前院去凝望星空看( stare at)星星。‎ ‎46.C【解析】前面提到“ walked into the front yard"可知,“我”一走进院子(yard)就听到了笑声。‎ ‎47.B【解析】根据后文可知,孩子们在追逐萤火虫,很是开心,所以是笑声( laughter)‎ ‎48.A【解析】根据后面的“ hoping to catch one in a jar.”“希望抓住一个,然后放进罐子里”,可知,孩子们在追逐( chasing)萤火虫。‎ ‎49.D【解析】我坐到椅子上观看( watch)他们 ‎50.B【解析】他们们跑得很快,可是( however)他们似乎就是捉不到萤火虫。‎ ‎51.D【解析】因为长时间捉不到萤火虫,最后(eventually)孩子们都筋疲力尽,坐到了草地上。‎ ‎52.B【解析】坐到草地上只是(just)观察萤火虫在空中飞。‎ ‎53.C【解析】前文已经提到我倒了一杯冰茶,所以此处表达的应是我饮( drank)了一口茶。‎ ‎54.A【解析】前文提到那两个孩子坐在草地上观察萤火虫在空中飞。于是,我也加人到他们中和他们起欣赏( appreciation)‎ ‎55.C【解析】根据文章第一句话“ It was a summer evening almost30 years ago.”可知,这是一个夏天(summer )的夜晚。‎ ‎56.D【解析】从那以后的多年以来,我一直欣赏和享受着( enjoyed)这个世界上所有的光荣之光。‎ ‎57.A【解析】这种光进入到了我的心田,可是我没有试图捕捉到这光( light)。‎ ‎58.C【解析】根据下文中的“ It must flow freely between us,”可知,真正的光和爱必须来自我们的内心( within)深处。‎ ‎59.B【解析】这光必须在你我之间自由地流淌,而不是被捕捉( catch)进罐子里。‎ ‎60.D【解析】文章最后几句话的意思是:下一次当你看到一些萤火虫的时候,坐下来去欣赏它们的光吧。让他们提醒你也去发出自己的光。让他们提醒你你也是这个世界上的一个奇迹( miracle)。‎ ‎ ‎ 语法填空 ‎61. stepped 考查谓语动词的时态。由整句话I jumped out of bed, opened the door and…可知此处要用过去时。 ‎ ‎62. in考查介词用法。由固定搭配 in a wrong direction 可知。‎ ‎63. thicker考查形容词的用法，由much 可知此处用比较级 ‎64. burning 考查非谓语动词。根据上下文，这里是指“正在燃烧的木头”。‎ ‎65. before考查连词。根据上下文的意思，此处是指“还没来得及做某事”‎ ‎66. feet 考查名词的单复数。根据上下文这里应该用复数。‎ ‎67. to protect考查非谓语动词。根据上下文，这里是指“为了保护我的脸”。‎ ‎68. a 考查不定冠词的用法。这里cry被形容词thin修饰，表示“一阵哭声”。‎ ‎69. it 考查代词（名词性物主代词）的用法。根据上下文，这里是指“握住我的筷子”。‎ ‎70. crazily考查副词，根据上下文，可知此处修饰running 用副词。‎ ‎ ‎ 听力录音稿 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎（停顿5秒）‎ Text 1‎ W: I knew that driving to Boston was going to be a long drive, but I didn’t expect it to take this long.‎ M: It’s another half an hour to the bridge, then 20 minutes more to the theater once we get across the bridge. ‎ ‎（停顿10秒）‎ Text 2‎ W: John, why are you late for school?‎ A: Just now, I saw a traffic accident on the road. A cyclist hurt his head very badly. I immediately called the police and the hospital.‎ ‎（停顿10秒）‎ Text 3‎ W: Look at that large field of corn! And there is a farm with some beautiful houses on it.‎ M: You can see the beauty of the farm on the train.‎ ‎（停顿10秒）‎ Text 4 ‎ W: Have you seen that new horror movie with Tom Cruise?‎ M: I did see the new Tom Cruise movie. It was good, but I thought it was a comedy.‎ W: You did? I guess it isn’t a very good horror movie, then...‎ ‎（停顿10秒）‎ Text 5‎ W: I can’t find my gloves. Have you seen them?‎ M: I haven’t seen them recently. Have you checked in the closet?‎ W: Yes. And they aren’t in my room. I guess I can get a new pair when we go out. ‎ ‎（停顿5秒）‎ 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题 ‎（停顿10秒）‎ Text 6‎ M: It was nice seeing you. Do you need me to do anything for you later? ‎ W: No, that’s OK. You helped out a lot yesterday and today.‎ M: Are you sure? I’m free all day tomorrow, and I can come to the house if you want. ‎ W: It’s fine. We already have enough workers to do the job.‎ ‎（停顿10秒）‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题 ‎（停顿10秒）‎ Text 7‎ M: Sue, do you know if they made all the teams for the new softball season?‎ W: I don’t think they have, Ben. On Monday at lunchtime, Karen told me that they were going to do it this Friday.‎ M: Great! That gives me two days to get some more people for the team.‎ W: Yeah. Just have them come to the meeting on Friday after work, and we’ll get them all signed up.‎ M: Cool. I think I have at least three people who want to play. ‎ ‎（停顿10秒）‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题 ‎（停顿15秒）‎ Text 8‎ M: Hey, Jane.‎ W: Oh, hi, John. Nice to see you. I’m doing a presentation for my company at your hotel today. ‎ M: Oh, nice. You sure did bring a lot of things with you. What’s it all for?‎ W: I need to show people all of our new game products, so I brought all of our games with me. ‎ M: All the games? I never knew that your company made so many games.‎ W: Yes. And I’ll be giving it all away to people who come to my presentation. ‎ M: Sounds like fun. Do you need a hand taking things inside?‎ W: That would be great.‎ M: OK, just wait here for a minute. I’ll be right back with a luggage cart. ‎ ‎（停顿15秒）‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题 ‎（停顿20秒）‎ Text 9‎ M: Hey, Tina. What are you doing?‎ W: I am just reading some things online about holidays. Nothing special. Why?‎ M: I was wondering if you could help me with something...if you have time, that is. ‎ W: Sure. I’m never too busy to do you a favor.‎ M: It’s the new employee ---Sandy. It’s her birthday today, and the office got a cake and ice cream for her. But I just learned that she can’t eat chocolate.‎ W: And everything is chocolate, huh?‎ M: Right. So, if you wouldn’t mind, could you run to the store and get something else for her? ‎ W: Which store? I know there is a cake store on Olive Avenue, but that’s far away.‎ M: The supermarket on Downing Street would have ice cream.‎ W: I don’t like that store. I’ll go to the store over on Abbey Road. It’s close by, and I think they might have cakes, too.‎ M: Thanks so much. I owe you one. ‎ ‎（停顿20秒）‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题 ‎（停顿20秒）‎ Text 10‎ Costa Rica, a small country located in Central America, is quickly gaining a good reputation for being one of the most family-friendly travel destinations in the world. Rather than leaving their kids behind, parents come to Costa Rica with their kids because the country offers many chances that both parents and children will enjoy. Costa Rica has a well-developed travel industry, so even travelers who don’t speak Spanish will find it easy to get around. Vacationers will discover white sand beaches, tropical fish, and places for the kids to check out animals like monkeys which might be liked by children. For an exciting hike, the family can climb up one of the country’s active volcanoes. Last but not least, Costa Rica is easy on the budget! Because the dollar is still strong in Latin America, families can have an amazing Costa Rican experience for about half the cost of a trip to Disneyland. They will find nice hotels for every budget. For 185 dollars per night, families can stay at an ocean-side hotel that has water slides and a butterfly garden. For a cheaper alternative, ‎ ‎80 dollars per night will get you a nice, cozy room in a hotel with hiking trails nearby and friendly staff available 24 hours a day. Planning your next vacation soon? Consider Costa Rica! ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎2018年5月高二醴攸联考英语命题“双向细目表”‎ 题 号 考试内容 ‎（考点）‎ 考核目标 题型 分值 能力要求 难易程度 ‎1‎ 对话 ‎《课标》语言技能8级对听力部分的要求--短对话 听力第一大题：听录音选择正确选项。‎ 每段对话仅读一遍 ‎1.5‎ 理解[]‎ 易 ‎2‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 中 ‎3‎ ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 难 ‎4‎ ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎5‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎6‎ 对话或独白 ‎1. 能识别不同语气所表达的不同情感；‎ ‎2. 能听懂有关熟悉话题的讨论和谈话并记住要点；‎ ‎3. 能抓住一般语段中的观点；‎ ‎4. 能基本听懂广播或电视英语新闻的主题或大意；‎ ‎5. 能听懂委婉的建议或劝告等。‎ 听力第二大题：长对话或短文理解，听录音选择正确答案 ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎7‎ ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎8‎ ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 难 ‎9‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎10‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎11‎ ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎12‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎13‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎14‎ ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 中 ‎15‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎16‎ ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 难 ‎17‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎18‎ ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎19‎ ‎1.5‎ 综合理解 难 ‎20‎ ‎1.5‎ 理解 中 ‎21‎ 细节理解题 学会使用3300个左右的单词和400－500个习惯用语或固定搭配。‎ 四选一 ‎2‎ 理解 ‎0.65‎ 易 ‎1. 能识别不同文体的特征；‎ ‎2. 能通过分析句子结构理解难句和长句；‎ ‎3. 能理解阅读材料中不同的观点和态度；‎ ‎4. 能根据学习任务的需要从多种媒体中获取信息并进行加工处理；‎ ‎5. 能理解语言隐含的情感、态度和价值观；‎ ‎6．能发现隐含在语言中的对他国文化的态度（例如：知识产权的保护）；‎ ‎7. 对英语和英语国家的人民及其文化传统有比较客观和公平的认识；‎ ‎22‎ 细节理解题 ‎2‎ 理解 易 ‎23‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 易 ‎24‎ 细节理解题 ‎2‎ 理解 易 ‎25‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎26‎ 猜测词义题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎27‎ 态度观点题 ‎2‎ 综合运用 中 ‎28‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎29‎ 细节理解题 ‎2‎ 理解 易 ‎30‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎31‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎32‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎33‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎34‎ 推理判断题 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎35‎ 主旨大意题 ‎2‎ 综合运用 难 ‎36‎ 过渡句 考查获取信息、筛选信息的能力。‎ 七选五 ‎2‎ 简单运用 中 ‎37‎ 细节理解句 ‎2‎ 理解 易 ‎38‎ 主题概括句 ‎2‎ 简单运用 难 ‎39‎ 细节理解句 ‎2‎ 理解 中 ‎40‎ 过渡句 ‎2‎ 简单运用 易 ‎41‎ 副词辨析 考《课标》语言技能8级对阅读部分的各项要求—完形填空。‎ 考查考生熟练运用词汇的意义、用法、搭配及语法知识，又考查考生的阅读能力，能够根据上下文线索进行通篇考虑，而后做出正确判断。‎ 四选一 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎42‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 识记 易 ‎43‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 难 ‎44‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎45‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎46‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎47‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 中 ‎48‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎49‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎50‎ 副词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎51‎ 副词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 理解 中 ‎52‎ 副词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 理解 难 ‎53‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎54‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 理解 中 ‎55‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎56‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 中 ‎57‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎58‎ 副词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 理解 难 ‎59‎ 动词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 理解 易 ‎60‎ 名词辨析 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎61‎ 动词时态 考查学生语法和词汇知识综合运用能力以及语篇逻辑分析能力和精细阅读能力。‎ 填空 ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 中 ‎62‎ 介词 ‎1.5‎ 识记 易 ‎63‎ 形容词 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎64‎ 非谓语 ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 中 ‎65‎ 连词 ‎1.5‎ 综合运用 难 ‎66‎ 名词 ‎1.5‎ 识记 中 ‎67‎ 非谓语 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 易 ‎68‎ 冠词 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎69‎ 代词 ‎1.5‎ 理解 难 ‎70‎ 副词 ‎1.5‎ 简单运用 中 ‎71‎ 动词使用错误：3个；‎ 连词使用错误：2个；‎ 考查学生英语的综合能力、评价能力和运用能力，从而考查纠正语篇中语言错误的能力及英语写作能力。‎ 改错 ‎1‎ 综合运用 名词单复数错误1个；‎ 代词错误1个；‎ 介词错误1个；‎ 形容词错误1个；‎ 副词错误1个。‎ 中 ‎72‎ ‎1‎ ‎73‎ ‎1‎ ‎74‎ ‎1‎ ‎75‎ ‎1‎ ‎76‎ ‎1‎ ‎77‎ ‎1‎ ‎78‎ ‎1‎ ‎79‎ ‎1‎ ‎80‎ ‎1‎ ‎81‎ 根据用文字或图表提供的信息写短文或报告或信件；‎ ‎1. 能写出语意连贯且结构完整的短文，叙述事情或表达观点和态度；‎ ‎2. 能在写作中做到文体规范、语句通顺。‎ ‎3. 能用英语恰当地表达自己的情感、态度和价值观；‎ 半开放式 ‎25‎ 综合运用 中