江苏省连云港市2021届高三英语上学期期中调研试题（Word版附答案）

江苏省连云港市2021届高三英语上学期期中调研试题（Word版附答案）

江苏省连云港市 2021 届高三年级第一学期期中调研考试 英 语 1. 本试卷共 8 页,共四部分,满分 150 分,考试时间 120 分钟。 2. 答题前,考生务必将学校、班级、姓名写在密封线内。 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分) 第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选 项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一 遍。 ( ) 1. What will the woman do tomorrow? A. Give money to the charity. B. Go on a charity walk. C. Visit the flood victims. ( ) 2. When will the woman be back? A. 7:30.B. 7:00. C. 8:00. ( ) 3. What is the woman doing? A. Returning a piece of clothing. B. Looking for a T-shirt. C. Buying a picture. ( ) 4. Where did the man go last Saturday? A. To the seaside. B. To the cinema. C. To the country park. ( ) 5. What is the possible relationship between the speakers? A. Husband and wife. B. Doctor and patient. C. Colleagues. 第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项 中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题 将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。 ( ) 6. Why isn t the man impressed with Peter? A. He lacks work experience. B. He has no good qualifications. C. He isn t enthusiastic enough in work. ( ) 7. Who will probably be the right person for the job? A. Jenny. B. John. C. Paula. 听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。 ( ) 8. What is the woman? A. A producer. B. A hostess. C. An environmentalist. ( ) 9. What is the interview about? A. The result of a study. B. Tonight s evening news. C. Environmental protection. ( )10. When does the conversation take place? A. Before the interview. B. During the interview. C. After the interview. 听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。 ( )11. What are the speakers discussing? A. The man s green house. B. The temperature in Greenland. C. The change of life in Greenland. ( )12. What is always nice according to the man? A. Animals can get more food. B. He can see the ocean every day. C. Green can be seen all year round. ( )13. What does the man have near his house? A. Grass. B. Trees. C. Vegetables. 听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。 ( )14. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At the train station. B. At the police station. C. At home. ( )15. Why did the kids set off the alarm? A. To amuse themselves. B. To report an incident. C. To attract the guard s attention. ( )16. Whom did the man argue with? A. The kids. B. The policeman. C. The guard. 听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。 ( )17. What is the show about? A. Young enthusiastic scientists. B. Experiments done by audience. C. Explanations for some mysteries. ( )18. What subject is the speaker most looking forward to? A. How to live a colourful life. B. How to eat chocolate properly. C. How to meet the perfect partner. ( )19. What does the speaker think of the show? A. It s beneficial. B. It s boring. C. It s time-wasting. ( )20. How long will the show last? A. 30 minutes. B. 60 minutes. C. 90 minutes. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 50 分) 第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Tamworth Short Story Competition Across the Tamworth area of Staffordshire, children who enjoy writing short stories are being encouraged to put their creative imagination to the test. They are being given the chance to enter a competition during these times of self isolation(隔 离). Tamworth Borough Council s Arts and Events and Assembly Rooms teams have joined forces to look at ways of helping people entertain their families at home. They have now set a challenge for children living in Tamworth, which is to write a maximum 500-word story using a topic of their choice. However, it must include the name of Tamworth somewhere in the story. Prizes are given to all age groups. The winning stories are to be recorded by a celebrity and then shared with the local media! Other prizes will include tickets to future shows at Tamworth Assembly Rooms. Adey Ramsel, Theatre, Artistic and Events Manager for the Assembly Rooms, said, “We ve been really pleased by the response so far; it seems we have quite a lot of gifted young authors out there. The competition will run till July 31st, giving everyone plenty of time to prepare their best work.So get writing and discover the hidden author in you today.” Cost: Free Phone: 01827709618 Website: www.Tamworthassemblyrooms.co.uk ( )21. What is the requirement for the story entries? A. They must include at least 500 words. B. They must be submitted before mid-July. C. They must focus on lives of local people. D. They must mention the word “Tamworth”. ( )22. Winners of the competition will get . A. their stories collected into a set of books B. their stories read by a well-known person C. chances to deliver a speech on local media D. tickets to visit Tamworth Assembly Rooms ( )23. What can be inferred from Adey Ramsel s words? A. Few children signed up for the competition. B. The hidden author would be given a free gift. C. He was content with the high-quality entries. D. He was forced to entertain people at home. B Did you know that the Chinese built the largest canal in the world? Its length of 1,104 miles easily compares with a route linking New York and Florida. Connecting five river systems and four provinces, it ends at Beijing in the North and Hangzhou in the south. For this reason, it is officially called the Beijing-Hangzhou Grand Canal. In 486 BC, the leader of the State of Wu, to transport goods to the northern areas of China, constructed a man-made channel using already existing waterways to link the Yangtze and Huai rivers. It was this channel that laid the foundation for the future longer Grand Canal.More than 1,000 years later, Emperor Yang of Sui Dynasty had the old canals rebuilt and connected to form what we know today as the Grand Canal. Then in 1403, Emperor Yongle of the Ming Dynasty transferred his capital from Nanjing to Beijing. In order to feed all those moving North, he had to transport grain from the south along the Grand Canal. To restore the Canal, more than 47,000 men were employed. The canal soon became the economic lifeline of the empire. Grain was not the only trade goods transported North on the waterways.Salt was another, as well as wine and tea. Goods traded from the North included cotton, wool, coal, flour, precious stones, and dried meat. At times, more than 120,000 soldiers and officers were needed to operate the almost 12,000 ships that annually travelled the Grand Canal. With the expansion of the railway system in the mid-1800s, the Grand Canal became less and less important to traders. Today, few goods are transported along its waterways. Still, the current South-North Water Transfer Project proves that the Chinese government still sees the Grand Canal important to the welfare of China. The aim of this costly project is to divert huge amounts of water every year from the Yangtze River to the drier regions in the north. ( )24. What is special about the Grand Canal? A. It can date back to the Sui Dynasty. B. It has a history of less than 1,000 years. C. It runs from New York to Florida. D. It is the longest canal across the world. ( )25. What can we learn about the function of the Grand Canal? A. It was first constructed to convey officers. B. It was employed for wars by Emperor Yongle. C. It used to transport goods between south and north. D. It is now carrying more goods than the railway system. ( )26. What does the underlined word “divert” in the last paragraph refer to? A. Transfer. B. Recycle. C. Conserve. D. Clarify. ( )27. Where is the text most likely from? A. A diary. B. A magazine. C. A novel. D. A biography. C New research indicates that a person s neighbourhood may play a large role in influencing decisions to commute(通勤) by bike.The study, published recently in the Journal of Transport and Land Use, could give city planners new ideas about how to design neighbourhoods, streets and bike paths with active commuting in mind, said Yuiin Park, lead author of the study. The study was based on a survey of 1,200 people who commuted to The Ohio State University. About 12.6 per cent of those people classified themselves as bicyclists, and about 5.4 per cent reported that a bicycle was their main choice of transportation to campus. People who lived in high-density(高密度) areas were more than twice as likely to commute by bike as people in medium-density areas and more than three times as likely to commute by bike as people in suburban areas. Both bicyclists and non-bicyclists in the survey agreed that bicycling was environmentally friendly, created health benefits and would save money. It indicates that recognizing the benefits of bicycling is not enough to push non-bicyclists to start commuting on two wheels. However, most bicyclists surveyed said they would commute by bike more frequently if they had access to more bike paths, bike sharing opportunities and covered parking for their bikes. Nonbicyclists who lived in high- density neighbourhoods appeared to be more concerned about safety—both from other vehicles and from crime—when travelling by bike than their friends who commute by bike. Park finally said that the conditional willingness to ride a bicycle to commute gradually decreases from high-density neighbourhoods to low-density, single-family neighbourhoods. She also said that if campus, city and regional planners want to increase the percentage of people commuting by bike, they might want to target public investment in protected bike paths and bike parking near downtown and campus areas. ( )28. What can we learn about the participants from Paragraph 2? A. They live near the Ohio State University. B. Quite a few of them commute by bicycle. C. They are students from the Ohio State University. D. People living downtown are most likely to ride bikes. ( )29. Non-bicyclists are more concerned about . A. narrow bicycle paths B. potential safety risks C. few sharing chances D. poor parking facilities ( )30. How can city planners encourage more people to commute by bike? A. By requiring university students to ride bikes. B. By investing more money in purchasing bikes. C. By building safe paths and parking for cyclists. D. By educating people about the benefits of cycling. ( )31. What is the text mainly about? A. Campuses should be designed as bike-friendly areas. B. People are supposed to commute downtown by bike. C. Neighbourhood may affect people s commuting choices. D. Commuting by bike makes neighbourhood more active. D The weather was ideal. There could not have been a more perfect day for a garden party. The gardeners had been up since dawn, cutting the lawns and sweeping them until the grass seemed to shine. As to the roses, you could not help feeling they understood that roses are the only flowers that impress people at garden parties. Breakfast was not over before the men came to put up the big tent. “Where do you want the tent put, Mother?” “My dear child, it is no use asking me. I m determined to leave everything to you children this year. Forget I am your mother. Treat me as an honoured guest.” But Meg could not possibly go and inspect the men. She had washed her hair before breakfast, and sat drinking her coffee with a green towel round her head, and a dark wet curl stuck onto each cheek. Jose, the butterfly, came down in a silk petticoat and a kimono jacket. “You will have to go, Laura, you are the artistic one.” Off Laura went, still holding her piece of bread and butter. It is so delicious to have an excuse for eating outside and, besides, she loved having to arrange things; she always felt she could do it so much better than anybody else. Four men carried poles covered with rolls of canvas and they had big tool bags on their backs. They looked impressive. Laura wished now that she was not holding that piece of bread and butter, but there was nowhere to put it and she couldn t possibly throw it away. She blushed(脸红) and tried to look severe and even a little bit short- sighted as she came up to them. “Good morning,” she said, copying her mother s voice. But it sounded so awful that she was ashamed, and hesitated, like a little girl, “Oh-erm-have you come-is it about the tent?” “That s right, miss,” said the tallest of the men, and he moved his tool bag, pushed back his straw hat and smiled down at her. “That s it.” ( )32. Who is responsible for the garden party? A. Jose.B. Laura. C. Meg. D. Mother. ( )33. How did Laura feel when meeting the workmen? A. Frightened. B. Shocked. C. Awkward. D. Confused. ( )34. Which of the following can best describe Laura? A. Childish and nervous. B. Artistic and forgetful. C. Determined and serious. D. Dependent and honest. ( )35. Which is the best title for the text? A. The Tent to Build B. The Men at Work C. The Party to Come D. The Gardeners on Duty 第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 36 Involving yourself in an activity that makes you breathe a little more heavily will improve the development of your heart and lungs and help them work more effectively and efficiently. Another benefit of exercise is that it will improve your body s immune system, making you better prepared to fight off infection. Every sport has its own specific health benefits. 37 It improves flexibility, balance and muscle strength. Of course, it s also a great way to cool down on a hot day! Sport, as well as being a physical activity, has a mental aspect too. 38 Sport builds character and promotes the development of a number of qualities that are essential for a successful and fulfilling time. Firstly, sport requires self-discipline, as you have to set goals, make plans and keep going even without immediate rewards. Secondly, sport will encourage you to maintain a positive and balanced outlook. Everyone has their ups and downs. Participating in competitive sport help you better understand winning and losing. 39 It will show you that you often need to rely on others for your success and that you also have a responsibility to contribute to the success of others. The world of sport is full of exciting opportunities where you can discover who you really are. 40 A. It s time to put on your sports shoes and go play! B. It can also help you maintain a healthy body weight. C. It can help define who you are and who you can become. D. Finally, sport will help you understand the importance of teamwork. E. Regular exercise contributes to the development of your muscles and joints. F. Sport will not only make you feel energetic, but also improve your overall health. G. Swimming, for example, is an excellent activity as it provides a full-body workout. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分) 第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Considerate giving requires no special talent, nor large amounts of money. It involves the heart and head acting together to achieve the 41 means of expressing our feelings.As Emerson 42 , “The only gift is a part of yourself.” One man I know is planning an 43 present for his wife. When I saw him coming out of a dancing studio, he explained, “I got tired of hearing my wife 44 about my poor dancing.My dancing well is going to be a lasting birthday present for her.” An elderly lady on an Iowa farm wept with delight when her son in New York had a telephone 45 in her house and followed it up with a weekly long-distance call. A young bride received a wedding present from an older lady. With it went a note, “Do not open 46 you and your husband have your first quarrel.” When there 47 came a day of misunderstanding, the bride 48 the package. In it she found a card box filled with her friend s favourite. 49 —and a note, “You will catch more flies with honey than you will with vinegar(醋).” It was a 50 lady indeed who gave her experience with her gift. All gifts that 51 a part of self show that someone has been really thinking of us. Chances for heroic giving are 52 , yet every day there are opportunities to give a part of yourself to someone who 53 it.It may be no 54 a kind word or a letter written at the right time. The important thing about any gift is the amount of 55 you put into it. ( )41. A. various B. direct C. simple D. perfect ( )42. A. made it B. put it C. got it D. meant it ( )43. A. ordinary B. abnormal C. unusual D. expensive ( )44. A. complain B. worry C. talk D. argue ( )45. A. called B. rung C. installed D. repaired ( )46. A. when B. after C. since D. until ( )47. A. immediately B. originally C. finally D. occasionally ( )48. A. remembered B. mentioned C. received D. forgot ( )49. A. chocolatesB. recipes C. books D. photos ( )50. A. hard-working B. open-minded C. kind D. wise ( )51. A. introduce B. contain C. prove D. assess ( )52. A. rare B. valuable C. possible D. common ( )53. A. receives B. wants C. accepts D. needs ( )54. A. rather than B. less than C. more than D. other than ( )55. A. yourself B. itself C. time D. money 第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Do you know that the eagle knows when a storm 56 (approach) long before it breaks? It will fly to some high spot 57 it waits for the winds to come. When the storm hits, it spreads its wings so that the wind will pick it up and lift 58 above the storm.While the storm rages(肆虐) below, the eagle is soaring above it. The eagle does not escape the storm. Rather, it simply uses the storm to lift it much 59 (high). It rises on 60 the storm brings. When the storms of life come upon us—and all of us will experience them—we can rise above them by 61 (set) our belief that we can make it.The storms do not have to overcome us. We can allow our inner power to lift us above them. We can enable ourselves to ride the winds of the storm that bring sickness, tragedy, 62 (fail) and disappointment in our lives. We can soar above the storm. Remember, it is not the burdens of life 63 how we handle them that weigh us down. To some people, the storm in life is 64 disaster that leaves nothing but ruins. While others see the storm as a 65 (turn) point in life. Sometimes it is not the hopeless situation that destroys you; it is the rain that has fallen into your heart that ruins you. When hardship knocks on your door, how will you greet it? 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分) 第一节(满分 15 分) 假定你是李华,你的英国笔友 Owen 对中国古典名著很感兴趣。请你用英文写一封邮件,推 荐他阅读《西游记》。内容包括: 1. 作品简介; 2. 推荐理由。 注意: 1. 词数 80 左右(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数); 2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 3. 参考词汇:取经 fetch sutras。 Dear Owen, So glad to know you are fond of Chinese classics. Hope that you will love it. Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分 25 分) 阅读下面的材料,根据其内容和所给的段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。续写 的词数应为 150 左右。 I was six years old and my sister, Sally Kay, was a submissive(顺从的) three. For some reason, I thought we needed to earn some money. I decided we should “hire out” as maids.We visited the neighbours, offering to clean houses for them for a quarter cents. Reasonable as our offer was, there were no takers. But one neighbour telephoned Mother to let her know what Mary Alice and Sally Kay were doing. Mother had just hung up the phone when we came bursting through the back door, into the kitchen of our apartment.“Girls,” Mother asked. “Why were you two going around the neighbourhood telling people you would clean their houses?” Mother wasn t angry with us. In fact, we learned afterwards, she was amused that we had come up with such an idea. But, for some reason, we both denied having done any such thing. Shocked and terribly hurt that her dear little girls could be such “bold-faced(厚颜无耻的) liars”, Mother then told us that Mrs Jones had just called to tell her we had been to her house and said we would clean it for a quarter. Faced with the truth, we admitted what we had done. Mother said that we had “fibbed(撒个小谎)”. We had not told the truth. She tried to explain why a fib hurt but she didn t feel that we really understood. Mother decided to teach us a lesson, one that we never forgot. Then an idea came to her in a flash. She cheerfully continued preparing for lunch. As we were chewing on sandwiches, she asked, “Would you two like to go to the movies this afternoon?” Mother bent and gathered us in her arms with tears in her eyes. 连云港 2021 届高三年级第一学期期中调研考试 英语答案 第一部分 听力（共 20 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分） 1-5 BABCB 6-10 ACBAA 11-15 CBBCA 16-20 CCCAB 第二部分 阅读理解（共 20 小题，每小题 2.5 分，满分 50 分） 21-25 DBCDC 26-30 ABDBC 31-35 CBCAC 36-40 FGCDA 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 41-45 DBCAC 46-50 DCABD 51-55 BADCA 第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 56. is approaching 57. where 58. it 59. higher 60. what 61. setting 62. failure 63. but 64. a 65. turning 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分） 第一节（满分 15 分） Dear Owen, So glad to know you are fond of Chinese classics. Journey to the West written by Wu Cheng’en is a must-read for you. Set in the Tang Dynasty, it describes the tough journey of a monk Xuanzang to fetch sutras from India with some animal spirits, including the Monkey King. The story is not only entertaining with magical tricks, but inspiring in terms of courage and persistence. Additionally, you will enjoy being exposed to abundant Chinese folk stories. Honestly, its mixture of fantasy and reality is my favourite.（80 words） Hope that you will love it. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分 25 分） As we were chewing on sandwiches, she asked, “Would you two like to go to the movies this afternoon?” “Wow! Fantastic!” We soon got bathed and dressed up. It was like getting ready for a birthday party. We hurried outside the apartment, not wanting to miss the bus that would take us downtown. On the landing, Mother astonished us by saying, “Girls, we are not going to the movies today.” “What?” We couldn’t believe our ears. “What do you mean? Mommy, you SAID it!” Mother bent and gathered us in her arms with tears in her eyes. She gently explained that this was what a fib felt like. “It is important that what we SAY is TRUE,” Mother said, “I fibbed to you just now and it felt awful. I don’t want to fib again and I’m sure you don’t either.” That is how my sister and I learned to be truthful. We have never forgotten how much a fib can hurt. (150 words) 录音稿 (Text 1) W: Marco and I want to do something to help the flood victims. M: What are you going to do? W: We’re going to do a charity walk tomorrow. (Text 2) M: If you need the book, I can bring it round to your house tonight. Will you be in? W: Well, I’ve got an English class until seven o’clock, but I’ll be back about half an hour after that. M: OK, that’s fine. I’m meeting Richard in a cafe at eight, but I can come round to your place first. (Text 3) W: Hello. I bought a nice T-shirt from here — with a picture of horses on it. Do you know if you have any more? I’d like one for my friend. M: Well, they should be over there on the shelf. (Text 4) W: I went to the movies with my friends last Saturday. How about you? M: Well, my parents and I planned to go to the seaside and have a picnic, but before we left, my dad checked a travel website which said there would be traffic jams. So we went to the country park instead. (Text 5) M: You seem a little warm. Let me take your temperature. Yes, you have a fever. W: Really? I hope I won’t be too sick to go to work. M: You’d better take a few days off. I’ll give you some medicine and be sure to get more rest and drink lots of water. (Text 6) W: Well, I think all the applicants were really good today! M: I’m not sure if I agree, Jenny. I wasn’t so impressed with them. W: Really? I thought John seemed really enthusiastic and Peter has some excellent qualifications. M: John doesn’t have enough experience and Peter has only just finished college. We need people with lots of experience who can take on lots of responsibility. W: But what about Paula? She has two years’ experience working in a bank. M: I suppose so. And she has good qualifications. She would need extra training if we decide to employ her. W: Absolutely. (Text 7) W: Thank you for meeting me, Dr. Freeman. M: It’s my pleasure. I’m glad to be here. W: Sorry for the short notice, but we’re hoping to air this story on tonight’s evening news. The producer already briefed you about our interview, right? M: Yes, she told me we’re going to discuss the research results of our study. W: Yes, hopefully the results will encourage more people to recycle and care for the environment. The interview should take about thirty minutes. Are you ready to begin? M: Sure, let’s start. W: Good evening. Today with me is Dr. Freeman. And you know he is … (Text 8) W: So, Eric, how is life in Greenland these days? M: Oh, you know. Winters are long. I live on the coast, though, so I get to see the ocean every day. That’s always nice. W: I heard that winters in Greenland are somewhat shorter than they used to be — global warming, I guess? M: Yes, that’s true. They’re calling it “the greening of Greenland”. W: The “greening”? What does that mean? M: Well, the average temperature in Greenland is rising twice as fast as in other places. So, now I have a few trees near my house. Trees didn’t use to exist in Greenland, you know! And we, um, people are growing some vegetables now — cabbage, potatoes, and things like that. And farmers can grow more grass for their animals. (Text 9) W: Jack. It’s very unusual for you to be so late. What happened? M: I managed to get the train, but it was really crowded and it was a terrible journey. W: How come? M: The train was full of immature students who thought it was funny to set off the emergency alarm. W: Oh, no! M: So we stopped in the middle of nowhere, and it took the guard forever to deal with the kids and call the police. I got a bit impatient after a while and argued with the guard, who then made me get off the train. Then I had to wait an hour for the next train because it was delayed! W: Oh, dear! So you haven’t had supper yet? M: No. I’m really hungry. W: OK. Supper is ready. (Text 10) W: I’ve just discovered a fantastic new show called How Do They Do That?. The idea is simple. Take a topic — like travel, for example and then think of lots of little mysteries that could be explained. How do planes take off and land? That sort of thing. Then get two young, enthusiastic hosts in a lab to do lots of exciting experiments. Add some pictures to explain the process to the audience and that’s the show. Get the idea? Each edition looks at a different subject. As well as travel, topics that have already been covered include education, the body, things around the house and magic — my favorite so far. Still to come are personal finances, the natural world, sports, and life and how to live it. The one I’m personally looking forward to the most is how to meet the perfect partner. But some of my friends would like to know how to eat chocolate without putting on weight. What I like most about the show is that it’s fun and you learn something at the same time, so you don’t feel so guilty about spending 60 minutes in front of the TV each week. So if you aren’t already watching How Do They Do That?, I strongly recommend that you make the time. You’ll never think it boring. It’s on every Tuesday at 9 p.m. but this week’s edition won’t be shown until half an hour later because of the live international soccer game. Get watching and start learning!