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安徽省蚌埠市教师2020届高三仿真模拟英语试卷(蚌埠二中15)
我为高考命题 (卷面分值:150 分 考试时间:120 分钟) 所有选择题的答案必须用 2B 铅笔涂在答题卡中相应的位置,否则,该大题不予记分。 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分) 第 I 卷 第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最 佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题 和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。 1. When will the woman meet the man? A. At 6:00. B. At 6:45. C. At 7:30 2. What is wrong with the man? A. His feet hurt. B. His shoes don’t fit him. C. He missed a long walk yesterday. 3. What is Mr Smith expected to do? A. Telephone the man B. Go to the Beijing office C. Offer the man a phone number 4. Where are the speakers? A. On a beach. B. In a shop. C. At the woman’s home 5. What are the speakers discussing? A. Whether the man will stay at home this weekend. B. How the man often spends his weekends. C. What food the man prepares for the party. 第二节 (共 15 小题;每个小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分) 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选 出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每 小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。 6. At what time will the woman meet a customer? A. 2 o’clock B. 3 o’clock C. 4 o’clock 7. Who will deliver the document? A. Ashley B. Rebecca C. Victor 听第 7 段材料,回答第 8、9 题。 8. When will the woman go to Sunshine Beach? A. On Wednesday B. On Friday C. On Saturday 9. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Visit a museum B. Take a city tour C. Read some books 听第 8 段材料,回答第 10 至 12 题。 10. What is the man’s problem? A. He is short of money. B. His report is too difficult. C. His computer runs too slow. 11. What does the woman think of Cherry’s electronics? A. Expensive. B. Satisfying C. Helpless. 12. What does the woman suggest the man do? A. Use her new computer. B. Bring his computer to the store. C. Copy the files on his computer. 听第 9 段材料,回答第 13 至 16 题。 13. Who is the woman staying with now? A. Her mother B. Her father C. Her sister 14. What will the man do in the evening? A. Visit the woman. B. Work on his project. C. Stay with his relatives. 15. How will the man go to the woman’s house? A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car. 16. When does the conversation take place? A. In the morning. B. At noon. C. In the afternoon. 听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。 17. How long will the notice board be used at most at a time? A. One day B. One week. C. Four weeks. 18. What requirement is first mentioned? A. The content. B. The size of paper C. The place to write the date. 19. Where should the dates be put in the notice? A. In the middle. B. In the left up corner. C. In the bottom right corner. 20. What will happen to the owner of the notice if it is accepted? A. He will receive a phone call. B. He will make a change to the notice. C. He will take the notice to the front desk. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 40 分) 第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 30 分) 阅读下面四篇短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡 上将该项涂黑。 A 原创题(选自 CDC 网站,原文有删改) Symptoms of Coronavirus People with COVID-19 have had a wide range of symptoms reported – ranging from mild symptoms to severe illness. Symptoms may appear 2-14 days after exposure to the virus. People with these symptoms may have COVID-19: ·Cough ·Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing ·Fever ·Chills ·Muscle pain ·Sore throat ·New loss of taste or smell Testing for COVID-19 To learn if you have a current infection, viral tests are used. But not everyone needs this test. Most people will have mild illness and can recover at home without medical care and may not need to be tested. · CDC has guidance for who should be tested, but decisions about testing are made by state and local-external icon health departments or health-care providers. ·If you have symptoms of COVID-19 and want to get tested, call your health-care provider first.. ·Although supplies of tests are increasing, it may still be hard to get an immediate test. Steps to help prevent the spread of COVID-19 ·Stay home except to get medical care ·Monitor your body changes ·Wear a cloth face covering, over your nose and mouth if you must be around other people or animals, including pets (even at home). ·You don’t need to wear the cloth face covering if you are alone. ·Cloth face coverings should not be placed on young children under age 2 years. ·Cover your coughs and sneezes ·Clean your hands often ·Avoid sharing personal household items ·Clean all “high-touch” surfaces everyday 21. Which of the following is not the symptom of COVID-19? A. Sore back B. Muscle pain C. Coldness in the body D. High body temperature 22. What should you do first if you want to get tested? A. Ask CDC for permission B. Go to hospital immediately. C. Contact your health-care provider. D. Find where you can get tested. 23. How can you protect yourself and your family during the outbreak of COVID-19? A. Stay home all the time. B. Place masks on little babies C. Sharing household items with your family D. Cleaning your living space frequently. B 原创(文章选自英国卫报,原文有删改) The Earth is far more alive than previously thought, according to "deep life" studies that reveal a rich ecosystem beneath our feet. Despite extreme heat, no light , minuscule nutrition and intense pressure, scientists estimate the ecosystem beneath is filled with between 15bn and 23bn tonnes of micro-organisms. The team combines 1,200 scientists from 52 countries in fields ranging from geology to chemistry. A year before the conclusion of their 10-year study, they will present their findings to date before the American Geophysical Union's annual meeting opens this week. Researchers say the diversity of underworld species bears comparison to the Amazon, but unlike that place the environment is still largely original because people haven’t explored most of the subsurface. The researchers said their discoveries were made possible by two technical advances: drills that can penetrate far deeper below the Earth's surface, and improvements in microscopes that allow life to be detected at decreasingly minute levels. The scientists have been trying to find a lower limit beyond which life cannot exist, but the deeper they dig the more life they find. Mysteries remain. Robert, a mineralogist at the Carnegie Institution for Science, said :"We must ask ourselves: if life on Earth can be this different from what experience has led us to expect, then what strangeness might await us as we explore for life on other worlds?" 24. What does the underlined phrase mean? A. be equal to B. look forward to C. consist of D. keep out of 25. What can we learn from the first two paragraphs? A .The research has been carried out for over 10 years. B. The underground world remains a complete mystery. C. Scientists have revealed the whole underground micro-organisms. D. Scientists have opened a new door into the underground ecosystem. 26. What can be inferred from Robert’s words? A. Science has its own limitations. B. Scientists should reflect on their research. C. There is no end to scientific exploration. D. Experience is the basic principle of scientific exploration. 27. What’s the best title of the passage? A. Scientists unite together to explore. B. Underground ecosystem remains unrevealed. C. New technology works in underground exploration. D. Scientists identify vast underground ecosystem. C In Denmark, parents are allowed to set up a new school if they are dissatisfied with the school in the area where they are living. Although these schools have to follow the national courses, they are allowed a lot of choice in deciding what to teach. Some of these new schools are called “small schools” because usually the number of pupils in them is only sixty, but a school has to have at least twenty-seven pupils. Cooleenbridge School in Ireland, is a small school similar to the ones in Denmark, it was set up by parents who came from Holland, Germany, Czechoslovakia, England and other parts of Ireland. They came because they wanted to live in the countryside and to grow their own food. In June 1986, they decided to start a school. They managed to get an old, disused primary-school (小 学) building and started with twenty-four children aged from four to twelve. The teachers say, “The important thing in school is doing, not sitting.” And so the courses includes yoga( 瑜 伽 ), cooking, knitting, kite-making, music, fishing, drama ( 戏 剧 ) and environmental(环境的) river studies, as well as reading, writing, math and science. 28. What are the rules for setting up a new school in Denmark? A. Parents are allowed to set up their own school. B. The school has to follow the national courses. C. The school has to have at least 27 pupils. D. All of the above. 29. The writer tells about the Cooleenbridge School in Ireland because . A. it was set up by parents who are not people of Denmark B. it was taken as an example of this kind of “small school” C. there were only twenty-four children D. the pupils there were aged from 4 to 12 30. What makes this kind of school special? A. It is set up by parents not by government. B. It is free to decide what to teach. C. The number of pupils in it is only sixty. D. It has to have at least 27 pupils. 31. “The important thing in school is doing not sitting.” What the teachers say actually means . A. What we should do is teaching in the classroom, not sitting in the office. B. Children should do more homework at home, not just sit in class to listen to the teachers. C. Children should learn by themselves not rely on teachers. D. Children should learn through practice not just from books. D 原创题(改编自 2015 年高考北京卷完型填空) Dario and his mother loved their new apartment. The living room was large enough for their piano. That night, the two of them sat side by side at the piano. They played jazz music to celebrate their new home. The loud music filled the room and made them feel very happy. The morning, however, their happiness disappeared. Someone had left a note under their door during the night. One of their neighbors had written to complain about the sound of the piano. Dario’s mother asked the building superintendent( 管理员) if he knew anything about it. But he said that they were all nice people and he couldn’t imagine any of them had done that. Later that morning, Dario suggested that they write a letter to their neighbors and apologize for their playing. “Maybe we could go and visit everyone in person.” his mother said. “What if we invited them to come here for a party instead? Dario asked. They both loved the idea. Over the next few days, they sent out invitations and prepared desserts for their guests. They decorated the apartment with streamers(彩带) and party lights. Finally, the day of the party arrived. Some guests brought presents. Others brought flowers. Some even brought desserts to share. One woman, Mrs. Gilbert, presented Dario’s mother with a book of piano music by Chopin. “I heard you playing the other night,” she said. “The sounds woke me out of bed. I worried that you might play like this every night. So I wrote a short note. I hope you don’t think I disliked the playing.” Dario’s mother smiled at Mrs. Gilbert. “I think may be we owe you an apology.” she said. “I didn’t realize how late it was when we were playing. Maybe we should play some quieter music at night. “You play, you play!” Mrs. Gilbert said. “I like what you play! Just not so loud at night.” She pointed to the book she had given them. “These songs are not such loud music.” “These songs are beautiful music.” Dario’s mother said. “We will be happy to play them in the evening.” “And we won’t play so loud or late!” Dario said. He was already looking forward to practicing the new music. More than that, however, he was happy to see the big smile on his mother’s face. It gave him a feeling of warmth and made him feel that they were home at last. 32. Why did Dario and his mother play the piano that night? A. To practice the piano. B. To show off their skills. C. To entertain their neighbors. D. To mark their removal. 33. What can we learn about their neighbors? A. They used to be nice. B. They were easy to get along with. C. They disliked Dario and his mother. D. They all liked soft music. 34. Why did Mrs Gilbert present a book to them? A. To apologize. B. To show her love for music. C. To advise them to play soft music. D. To help them improve their skills. 35.How did Dario feel about Mrs Gilbert’ words? A. Happy to get a sense of belonging. B. Determined to give up music. C. Urgent to practice the piano harder. D. Ashamed of his disturbance. 第二节 (共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 原创题(改编自 2016 年全国高考四川卷 B 篇阅读理解, 原文有改动) If you could have one superpower, What would it be ? Dreaming about whether you would want to read minds, see through walls, or have superhuman strength may sound silly. 36 . Every day in our work, we are inspired by the people we meet doing extraordinary things to improve the world. 37 . It can help others a lot. 38 . Your lives are busy enough doing homework, playing sports, making friends, seeking after your dreams. But we do think that you can live a more powerful life when you devote some of your time and energy to something much larger than yourself. Find an issue you are interested in and learn more. Volunteer or, if you can, contribute a little money to a cause. Whatever you do, don’t be a bystander. 39 . You may have the opportunity to make your biggest difference when you’re older. But why not start now? Our own experience working together on health, development, and energy for the last twenty years has been one of the most rewarding parts of our lives . 40 . In the years ahead we can continue to get fuel for our optimism about how much the lives of the poorest people will improve. A. Get involved. B. Do something on your own. C. It has changed who we are. D. Superpower can make our dreams come true. E. You can make a big difference even though you devote a little. F. They have a different kind of superpower that all of us possess. G. It, however, actually gets to the heart of what really matters in your life. 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分 45 分) 第一节 完形填空(共 20 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最 佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 原创题(改编自阅读理解,具体出处不详) The world is not only hungry, but it is also thirsty for water. This may seem 41 to you, since nearly 70 percent of the earth's surface is covered with water. But about 97 percent of this huge 42 is sea water, or salt water. Man 43 only drink and use the other 3 percent—the 44 water from rivers, lakes, underground, and other sources. And we cannot 45 use all of that, because some of it is in the 46 of icebergs and glacier. Even worse, some of it has been polluted. 47 , as things stand today, this small mass of fresh water is still enough for us. But our need for water is 48 rapidly—almost day by day. Only if we take 49 to deal with this problem now can we avoid a severe worldwide water 50 later on. We all have to learn how to stop 51 our valuable water. One of the first steps is to 52 ways of reusing it. Today in most large cities, water is used only once and then 53 out into a sewer system. From there it returns to the sea or 54 into underground storage tanks. But it is 55 to pipe used water to a purifying plant. There it can be treated with chemicals so that it can be used again, just 56 it were fresh from a spring. But even if every large city 57 and reused its water, we still would not have enough. All we'd have to do to make use of the vast 58 of sea water in the world is to 59 the salt. If we take these steps we'll be in no danger of 60 . 41. A. natural B. strange C. funny D. abnormal 42. A. water B. body C. number D. amount 43. A. may B. need C. can D. will 44. A. fresh B. clean C. clear D. little 45. A. still B. even C. ever D. really 46. A. area B. center C. form D. shape 47. A. However B. Thus C. Actually D. Consequently 48. A. raising B. increasing C. multiplying D. accelerating 49. A. means B. methods C. approaches D. measures 50. A. treatment B. pollution C. shortage D. supply 51. A. wasting B. polluting C. ignoring D. overlooking 52. A. foster B. encourage C. promote D. develop 53. A. took B. brought C. sent D. carried 54. A. floats B. runs C. sinks D. drops 55. A. possible B. fundamental C. necessary D. proper 56. A. even if B. as if C. so that D. in case 57. A. recycled B. saved C. purified D. protected 58. A. reserves B. systems C. parts D. zones 59. A. store B. prevent C. remove D. pull 60. A. dying out B. drying up C. starving out D. breaking up 第 II 卷 第二节 语法填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分) 阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1 个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 原创题(原文选自 VOAChina,有删改) China says millions of legal cases are now being decided by "internet courts" that do not require citizens to appear in court. The "smart court" includes non-human judges powered by artificial 61 (intelligent), or AI. China's 62 (one) internet court was established in the eastern city of Hangzhou in 2017. It was designed 63 (ease) the workload of humans and improve the speed and effectiveness of the legal process. Court officials say that 64 virtual judges are used, human judges observe the process and can make major rulings. The internet court in Hangzhou only deals with cases 65 (involve) legal disputes over digital 66 (matter). These include internet trade issues, copyright cases and disputes over online product sales. Digital court cases in China have seen 67 sharp increase in recent years, as the number of mobile payments and internet-based businesses 68 (grow). The growth is tied to China's huge number of internet users -- about 850 million. Hangzhou has set an example 69 us, and some other cities are also experimenting with the possibility of internet courts. In the near future we can expect the court will be changed 70 (considerable). 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 35 分) 第一节 短文改错(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分) 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中 共有 10 处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏词符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。 修改:在错的词下面画一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词; 2.只允许修改 10 处,多者(从第 11 处起)不计分。 原创题(改编自听力材料独白部分,原文有删改) At 32,I have just finished my first year at university. Except attending some speeches, I have to learn read books fast and write long articles now. I continued my education after fifteen year away from the classroom. As a salesman, although I earned a handsome salary, I was tiring with the work. I even envied the students in the local universities, who seemed happily. Then, one day, my dream comes true. I had admitted to a university. Unlike most 18-year-olds, in their spare time, I like staying in the library to read. I often wonder how I will do after university, but I believe continuing my education has been a wise decision. 第二节 书面表达(满分 25) 原创题 假定你是李华,你在合肥学中文的美国笔友 Tom 给你写信,咨询蚌埠湖上升明月景区的相 关情况。请你给他回信,要点包括: 1. 感谢他对蚌埠发展的关注; 2. 湖上升明月的相关介绍; 3. 邀请他亲自来参观。 注意:1.字数 100 左右; 2.可以适当增加情节,以使行文连贯。 我为高考命题 答案 第一部分 听力(每小题 1.5 分,共 30 分) 1-5 CAABB 6-10 ACBAC 11-15 BBCCB 16-20 ACACA 第二部分 阅读理解 第一节 阅读理解 (每小题 2 分,共 30 分) A 篇(原创题) 主题语境:人与自然(传染疾病与自我保护) 语篇类型:说明文 语篇解读:本文主要介绍了在 COVID-19 病毒全球蔓延情况下,人们应了解感染病毒的症状, 检测要素以及如何保护自己和家人。 命题目标和意图:本文能够引导学生思考保护自然保护环境的重要性。人类若想长期生存在 地球上,就要学会如何以自然和野生动物和谐相处,这样才能更好的保护自己。本文侧重考 查学生对文中具体信息的辨认理解。 答案详解: 21 A {命题立意}考查细节理解 根据 Symptoms of Coronavirus 部分关于病毒感染症状的表述,可看出 A 项不是症状表现。 22 C {命题立意}考查细节理解 根据 Testing for COVID-19 部分中的 If you have symptoms of COVID-19 and want to get tested, call your health-care provider first,可知,C 项正确。 23 D {命题立意}考查细节理解 根据 Steps to help prevent the spread of COVID-19 部分中的 Clean all “high-touch” surfaces everyday,可知,经常清洁我们的居住场所有助于保护自己。 B 篇(原创题) 主题语境:人与自然(宇宙探索) 语篇类型:科技科普文 语篇解读:本文介绍了各国科学家通力合作对地下生态系统研究的新发现,以此激发学生探 索自然与未知的兴趣和勇气。 命题目标和意图:本文是科技科普文,侧重科学文化的普及,引导学生学会相关知识的正确 表达和关注科技发展。此文本有一定难度,着重考查学生获取信息,处理信息,以及分析问 题和解决问题的能力。 答案详解: 24 A {命题立意}考查猜测词义 根据第一段中的 The Earth is far more alive than previously thought, according to "deep life" studies that reveal a rich ecosystem beneath our feet.可知,地下生态系统生物物种众多,所以 此处应理解为地下生物多样性可比拟亚纳逊流域。 25 D {命题立意}考查推理判断 根据第一段的表述,可以看出,科学家在地下生态系统探索中取得了重大进展。 26 C {命题立意}考查推理判断 根 据 最 后 一 段 中 We must ask ourselves: if life on Earth can be this different from what experience has led us to expect, then what strangeness might await us as we explore for life on other worlds?,可见,科学探索不应被经验所局限,未来还有很多未知供我们探索。 27 D 考查最佳标题 整篇文章着重介绍了科学家在地下生态探索的新发现。 C 篇 答案 28-31 DBAD D 篇 (原创题) 主题语境:人与自我(做人与做事) 语篇类型:记叙文 语篇解读:本文讲述了 Dario 与其母亲如何通过努力与邻居和谐相处,从而找到归属感的故 事。 命题意图和目标:本文有助于帮助学生学会做人和做事,树立正确人生态度,懂得如何与他 人和谐共处,明白自己作为社会人所承担的责任与义务。本文侧重提高学生情感态度和文化 意识等综合人文素养,同时文本难度适中,文化韵味浓厚,可激发学生对英语学习的兴趣。 答案详解: 32 D {命题立意}考查细节理解 根据第一段 They played jazz music to celebrate their new home,可见,他们是为了庆祝搬 家。 33 B {命题立意}考查推理判断 根据第二段中 But he said that they were all nice people and he couldn’t imagine any of them had done that 以后后来邻居们都带着礼物前来参加聚会可知,他们都是容易相处的。 34 C {命题立意}考查细节理解 根据第七段中“I like what you play! Just not so loud at night.” She pointed to the book she had given them. “These songs are not such loud music.”,可见,Mrs Gilbert 送书是想让他们演 奏轻缓的音乐。 35 A {命题立意}考查推理判断 根据最后一段 It gave him a feeling of warmth and made him feel that they were home at last. 可见,Mrs Gilbert 的话让 Dario 找到了归属感。 第二节 七选五 (每小题 2 分,共 10 分) 原创题 主题语境:人与自我(做人与做事) 语篇类型:议论文 语篇解读:本文介绍了个人在社会中的价值,鼓励个人积极参与社会活动,奉献社会。 命题目标和意图:学生在阅读本文时,可以更好的树立自己的人生态度,明确公民义务和社 会责任。同时,他们的语言知识和语言技能得以提高。 答案详解: 36 G {命题立意}关联逻辑法解题 上一句中 may sound silly 与 G 选项语义和逻辑连贯。 37 F {命题立意}关联逻辑法解题 F 选项中的 they 指的就是上一句中做着非凡的事情来改善这个世界的人们。 38 E {命题立意}设题位置法解题 本空是段首句,也是整段的中心句。这段的中心大意是鼓励人们积极参与,哪怕再小的行 动,也能改变世界。 39 A {命题立意}关联逻辑法解题 根据上一句 Whatever you do, don’t be a bystander,可见,要参与其中。 40 C {命题立意}关联逻辑法解题 上一句表面我们之前的努力已经取得了成效,所以也改变了我们。 第三部分 英语知识应用 第一节 完型填空 (每小题 1.5 分,共 30 分) 原创题 主题语境:人与自然(环境保护) 语篇类型:说明文 语篇解读:本文介绍了目前地球饮用水资源的缺乏,倡议大家共同努力,改变现状。 命题目标和意图:学生在阅读文本时,可以明确人类生存,社会发展与环境和自然资源的关 系,明确作为地球人的责任和义务。题干设置时,着重考察和提高学生的语言知识和语言技 能,从语义搭配,结构搭配,惯用搭配和逻辑知识等方面考察学生的词汇知识。而且有些空 学生需在理解整篇文章的基础上才能做出正确的选择,即我们在做完形填空时所强调的“瞻 前顾后”。 答案详解: 41 B 形容词辨析 根据 since nearly 70 percent of the earth's surface is covered with water,可知水资源缺乏似 乎是奇怪的。 42 D 名词辨析 amount 指不可数名词的数量。 43 C 情态动词辨析 can 在这里指能够。 44 A 形容词辨析 新鲜的水指上文的可饮用水。 45 B 副词辨析 根据上下文的表述,我们的饮用水只占总水资源的百分之三,甚至有些我们是不能用的, 因为是以冰川的形式存在。 46 C 名词辨析 参看上一题解析。 47 A 副词辨析 根据下一句 this small mass of fresh water is still enough for us,可见,与上文是转折关系。 48 B 动词辨析 根据句意,可知,我们对水的需求日益增加。 49 D 名词辨析 考查短语搭配 take measures to do sth 采取措施。 50 C 名词辨析 根据句意:只有现在采取有效措施,才能避免以后世界范围内的水资源缺乏。 51 A 动词辨析 A 浪费 B 污染 C 忽略 D 忽视 52 D 动词辨析 根据句意,我们应研发出再利用水资源的方法。A 养育 B 鼓励 C 促进 升职 53 C 动词辨析 考查短语 send out 排出 54 B 动词辨析 在此句中 run 指水的流动。 55 A 形容词辨析 此处指把处理过的废水用于灌溉是可能的。 56 B 连词辨析 根据句意,我们可以再利用这些过的水,好像它是新鲜的水一样。 57 C 动词辨析 根据句意,即使每个城市都净化和在利用水。 58 A 名词辨析 reserve 在这里指储备 59 C 动词辨析 remove the salt 指去掉海水中的盐分。 60 B 动词短语辨析 A 灭绝 B 干涸 C 使断粮而屈服 D 中断,停止 第二节 语法填空 (每小题 1.5 分,共 15 分) 命题目的和意图: 本题重点检测学生在理解语篇和句子结构基础上,运用语法和单词拼写的能力。 答案详解: 61 intelligence 考查形容词转化成名词 62 first 考查序数词 63 to ease 考查动词不定时做目的状语 64 although/though 考查连词 根据逻辑,此处是让步状语从句。 65 involving 考查现在分词做后置定语。 66 matters 考查名词复数。 67 a 考查不定冠词。 68 has grown 考查时态。 69 to/for 考查短语搭配。 Set an example to/for 为…树立榜样。 70 considerably 考查形容词变副词。 第四部分 写作 第一节 短文改错 (每小题 1 分,共 10 分) 原创题 At 32,I have just finished my first year at university. Except attending some speeches, I Besides have to learn ∧ read books fast and write long articles now. to I continued my education after fifteen year away from the classroom. As a salesman, years although I earned a handsome salary, I was tiring with the work. I even envied the students tired in the local universities, who seemed happily. Then, one day, my dream comes true. I happy came had admitted to a university,. Unlike most 18-year-olds, in their spare time, I like staying in was my the library to read. I often wonder how I will do after university, but I believe continuing what my education has been a wise decision. 命题目标和意图:短文改错旨在考查学生对语言的评价与校正的能力以及对词汇、语法和语 篇三要素的把握能力。学生平时一定要注意积累更多的语言知识,扩大词汇量,掌握丰富的 英语短语,了解更多的句型结构和习惯表达,这样在考试中才能游刃有余,迅速地找到错误 并加以纠正。 我专门针对考生们平时学习英语过程中,尤其是写作练中常犯的又是较为普遍的错误而 设计了此篇短文改错。分别考查了谓语动词的时态,非谓语动词,形容词,连词,宾语从句, 介词等。 第二节 书面表达 (共 25 分) 原创范文 Dear Tom, Thank you for your interest in my hometown’s development. I’m writing to share with you some relative information about Hu Shang Sheng Ming Yue.. The attraction covers a large area in the south of Bengbu , with a great mix of architectural complex from different dynasties in the center and the water of Long Hu Lake flowing through it, which mirrors the ultimate goal of Chinese architecture----creating a place where human and nature live in harmony. Recently the complex has aroused the country’s even the world’s attention. Many celebrities have come to enjoy the wonder, exploring its beauty and charm . I sincerely invite you to have a cultural journey here if you are available this weekend. Best wishes. Yours, Li Hua 命题意图和目的: 本次书面表达是一封书信,学生应 Tom 的请求对湖上升明月进行简单介绍,然后邀请 Tom 前来实地体验。此文可激发学生对中国传统建筑的兴趣,坚定其文化自信,提高其跨文 化沟通能力。查看更多