英语卷·2018届湖南省长沙市一中高二上学期第二次阶段性检测（2016-12）

英语卷·2018届湖南省长沙市一中高二上学期第二次阶段性检测（2016-12）

长沙市第一中学2016-2017学年高二上学期第二次阶段性检测 英语 得分：___________‎ ‎ 本试卷分为四个部分，包括听力、阅读理解、英语知识运用和写作。时量120分钟，满分150分。‎ 第I卷 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ ‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. Where are the speakers?‎ ‎ A. At a hotel B. At a theatre C. At an airport ‎2. What is the weather usually like in April?‎ ‎ A. Cool and dry B. Warm and dry C. Cool and wet ‎3. Which is true about Bus No. 3?‎ ‎ A. It runs every 15 minutes ‎ B. It is already 20 minutes late ‎ C. It may arrive very soon ‎4. What is the woman doing?‎ ‎ A. Complaining B. Apologizing C. Consulting ‎5. What do we know about the man?‎ ‎ A. He doesn’t like high-speed travel ‎ B. He’s interested in high-speed travel ‎ C. He asks the woman to travel by train 第二节  (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)‎ ‎  ‎ ‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6. How does the woman feel at first?‎ ‎ A. Excited B. Happy C. Stressed ‎7. What will the man do for the woman?‎ ‎ A. Help her type ‎ B. Teach her to type ‎ C. Lend her a computer 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。‎ ‎8. What’s the woman looking for?‎ ‎ A. Her handbag B. Her purse C. Her keys ‎9. What will the speakers do?‎ ‎ A. Go to the cinema ‎ B. Watch an opera ‎ C. Go shopping 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. What’s the matter with Linda according to the map?‎ ‎ A. Her leg is broken ‎ B. She is hungry ‎ C. She’s got the flu ‎11. What will the man help Linda do?‎ ‎ A. Make an appointment with the doctor ‎ B. Bring her some lunch ‎ C. Buy her medical insurance ‎12. What does Linda do?‎ ‎ A. A waitress B.A teacher C .A student 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. How did the woman get to the place?‎ ‎ A. By bus B. By taxi C. On foot ‎14. Where does the conversation most probably take place?‎ ‎ A. At an office B. At a restaurant C. At the airport ‎15. What does the woman like best?‎ ‎ A. Fish B. Beef C. Pork ‎16. What does the woman like to drink?‎ ‎ A. Tea B .Coffee C. Orange juice 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. Why are works of art displayed in New York’s subway?‎ ‎ A. To brighten riders’ trip ‎ B. To attract artists to the city ‎ C. To keep them in good state ‎18. How many works of art there in the “underground art museum”?‎ ‎ A. 30 B. 100 C. 265‎ ‎19. What can be seen on the ceiling of Grand Central Terminal?‎ ‎ A. Native plants and flowers ‎ B. The huge painting of the night sky ‎ C. Coastal scenes ‎20. What can we learn from the talk?‎ ‎ A. Artists are active in creating works of art ‎ B. Visitors show little interest in the art collections ‎ C. Riders think highly of the underground art museum 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分32分）‎ 第一节（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）‎ ‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳答案，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A Holidays Holiday News ‎ Vacancies(空位)now and in the school holidays at a country hotel in Devon. This comfortable, friendly ‎ home-from-home lies near the beautiful quiet countryside, but just a drive away from the sea. The food is simple but good. Children and pets are welcome.‎ ‎ Reduced prices for low season.‎ The Snowdonia Center ‎ The Snowdonia Center for young mountain climbers has a mountain climbing lesson. The beginners’ costs are ￡57 for a week, including food and rooms. Equipment is included except walking shoes, which can be hired at a low cost.‎ ‎ You must be in good health and prepared to go through a period of body exercises. This could be the beginning of a lifetime of mountain climbing adventure. ‎ The World Sea Trip of a Lifetime ‎ Our World Sea Trip of 2017 will be unlike any holiday you have ever been on before. Instead of one hotel after another, with all its packing and unpacking, waiting and traveling, you just go to bed in one country and wake up in another.‎ ‎ On board the ship, you will be well taken care of. Every meal will be first-class and every cabin like your home.‎ ‎ During the trip, you can rest on deck(甲板), enjoy yourself in the games rooms and in the evening dance to our musical team and watch our wonderful play.‎ ‎ You will visit all the places most people only dream about---from Acapulco and Hawaii to Tokyo and Hong Kong.‎ ‎ For a few thousand pounds, all you’ve ever hoped for can be yours.‎ ‎21. What can you do if you like to go on holidays with pets?‎ ‎ A. Choose the holiday in Devon ‎ B. Go to the Snowdona Centre ‎ C. Join the World Sea Trip of 2017‎ ‎ D. Visit Acapulco and Hawaii ‎22. In what way is the Snowdonia Centre different from the other two holidays?‎ ‎ A. It provides chances of family gatherings ‎ B. It provides customers with good food ‎ C. It offers a sport lesson ‎ D. It offers comfortable rooms ‎23. What is special about the World Sea Trip of 2017?‎ ‎ A. You can have free meals on deck every day ‎ B. You can sleep on a ship and tour many places ‎ C. You will have chances to watch and act in a play ‎ D. You have to do your own packing and unpacking B ‎ Our “Mommy and Me” time began two years ago. My next-door neighbor and fellow mother, Christie, and I were out in our front yards, watching seven children of age 6 and under ride their bikes up and down. “I wish I could take one of my children out alone,” said Christie.‎ Then we worked out a plan: When Christie takes one of her children out, I’ll watch her other three. And when she watches two of mine, I’ll take someone out.‎ The children were extremely quick to accept the idea of “Mommy and Me” time. Christie’s daughter, McKenzie, went first. When she returned, the other children showered her with tons of questions. McKenzie was smiling broadly. Christie looked refreshed and happy. “She’s like a different child when there’s no one else around,” Christie shared with me quickly. With her mother all to herself, McKenzie didn’t have to make an effort to gain attention.‎ Just as Christie had noticed changes in McKenzie, I also discovered something different in each of my children during our alone times. For example, I am always surprised when my daughter, who is seldom close to me, holds my hand frequently. My stuttering（口吃的）son, Tom, doesn’t stutter once during our activities since he doesn’t have to struggle for a chance to speak. And the other son, Sam, who’s always a follower when around other children shines as a leader during our times together.‎ The “Mommy and Me” time allows us to be simply alone and away with each child ---talking, sharing, and laughing, which has been the biggest gain. Every child deserves to be an only child at least once in a while.‎ ‎24. What is the text mainly about?‎ ‎    A. The experience of the only child being with mother.‎ ‎    B. The advantage of spending time with one child at a time.‎ ‎    C. The happy life of two families.‎ ‎    D. The basic needs of children.‎ ‎25. Right after McKenzie came back, the other children were _____________.‎ ‎    A. happy         B. curious         C. regretful         D. friendly ‎26. What is one of the changes the author finds in her children?‎ ‎    A. The daughter acts like a leader.          B. Sam holds her hand more often.‎ ‎    C. The boys become better followers.      D. Tom has less difficulty in speaking.‎ ‎27. The author seems to believe that ___________.‎ ‎    A. having brothers and sisters is fun ‎    B. it’s tiring to look after three children ‎    C. every child needs parents’ full attention ‎    D. parents should watch others’ children C ‎ Today about 70 countries use Daylight Saving Time(DST). Daylight Saving was first introduced during World War I in Australia. During the world wars, DST was used for the late summers beginning January 1917 and 1942, and the full summers beginning September 1942 and 1943.‎ In 1967, Tasmania experienced a drought（干旱）. The State Government introduced one hour of daylight saving that summer as a way of saving power and water. Tasmanians liked the idea of daylight saving and the Tasmanian Government has declared daylight saving each summer since 1968. Persuaded by the Tasmanian Government, all states except two passed a law in 1971, for a test use of daylight saving. In 1972, New South Wales, South Australia and Victoria joined Tasmania for regular daylight saving, but Queensland did not do so until 1989.‎ Tasmania, Queensland and South Australia have had irregular plans, often changing their dates due to politics or festivals（节日）. For example, in 1992, Tasmania extended（延长）daylight saving by an extra month while South Australia began extending daylight saving by two weeks for the Adelaide Festival. Special daylight saving plans were made during the Sydney 2000 Olympic Games.‎ The differences in daylight saving in Australia continue to cause serious problems in transport and many other social activities. It also reduces the number of hours in the working day ‎ that are common to all centers in the country. In particular, time differences along the east coast cause major differences, especially for the broadcasters of national radio and television.‎ ‎ 28. Daylight Saving Time was introduced in Tasmania _______________.‎ A. to stop the drought in 1967           B. to support government officials C. to pass a special law in the state      D. to save water and electricity ‎29. According to the text, which state was the last to use DST?‎ A. Victoria.                          B. South Australia. ‎ C. Queensland.                   D. New South Wales.‎ ‎30. What can we learn about DST in some Australian states?‎ A. It doesn’t have fixed dates.           B. It is not used in festivals.‎ C. Its plan was changed in 2000.        D. It lasts for two weeks.‎ ‎31. What do we know about the use of DST from the last paragraph?‎ A. There exist some undesirable effects.    B. It helps little to save energy.‎ C. It brings about longer working days.     D. Radio and TV programs become different.‎ 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ ‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ College will be the most important years in your life. It is in college that you will truly discover what learning is about. You often question "what good is this course". I encourage you to be inquisitive(好学的), but I also want to tell you: " 32 " What I mean by that is the materials taught isn't as important as you gaining the ability to learn a new subject, and the ability to analyze a new problem. That is really what learning in college is about – this will be the period where you go from teacher-taught to master-inspired, after which you must become self-learner. So do take each subject seriously, and even if what you learn isn't critical for your life. 33 ‎ Do not fall into the trap of dogma(教条). 34 Things are rarely “black and white”, and there are always many ways to look at a problem. You will become a better problem solver if you recognized that. This is called “critical thinking”. 35 I will always remember when I went to my Ph. D. advisor and proposed a new thesis topic. He said, “I don’t agree with you, but I’ll support you.” After the years, I have learned this isn’t just flexibility, it is encouragement of ‎ critical thinking, and an empowering style of leadership, and it has become a part of me.‎ ‎ 36 Take courses you think you will enjoy. Don’t be trapped in what others think or say. Steve Jobs says when you are in college, your passion will create many dots, and later in your life you will connect them. So don’t worry too much about what job you will have, and don’t be too utilitarian(功利的). If you like Japanese or Korean, go for it, even if your dad thinks “it’s not useful”. Enjoy picking your dots, and be assured one day you will find your calling, and connect a beautiful curve through the dots.‎ A. The only thing that matters is what you learned.‎ B. And it is the most important thinking skill you need for your life.‎ C. Follow your passion in college.‎ D. Education is what you have left after all that is taught is forgotten.‎ E. The skills of learning will be something you cherish forever.‎ F. There is no single simple answer to any question.‎ G. Do your best in classes, but don’t let pressure get to you.‎ 第三部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分53分）‎ 第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ I wouldn’t have picked up that dusty card without seeing those big words: DON’T FORGET. I was 37 . Don’t forget what? Under the words were three numbered items: 1. Snow peas. 2. Shakespeare. 3. Sadira Kirmani. What was my name doing on someone’s list?‎ Yesterday was my first day here. Since Mrs. Allison 38 me, nobody except the boy with glasses spoke to me and asked if he could have my cake at lunch. I tried to 39 on the lessons, but my mind went 40 . Snow peas, Shakespeare, and me? “Sadira.” I 41 when Mrs. Allison called my name. “It’s time to line up for 42 .”‎ As I moved through the line, I heard a girl with braces ask, “What’s that?”, 43 at a pan. “Snow peas,” the lady answered. “I’ll try some snow peas,” the boy behind me 44 . Snow peas! Number 1 on the list.‎ After lunch, Mrs. Allison 45 that it was “rhyme(押韵诗) time”. The boy who had asked for snow peas stood up. “OK, Wyatt.” Mrs. Allison nodded. “ ‘To be or not to be’” Wyatt began.‎ ‎ When he 46 , Mrs. Allison added, “Shakespeare wrote sonnets, a special kind of 47 .” Shakespeare? Number 2 on the list. I started to panic, ___48 what would happen next.‎ After school, I sat alone on the bus. It was quite a while before I 49 Wyatt. He smiled in a 50 way, saying, “I wanted to talk to you. I almost forgot.”‎ ‎“Forgot what?”‎ ‎“You’re number 3 on my list.”‎ So now I 51 what was going on. “My mom’s 52 . I’m supposed to try three new things every day.” continued Wyatt.‎ That night, I made my own 53 : 1. Try the spinach quiche. 2. Offer my 54 to the boy with glasses .3. Say ___55 to the girl with braces. Then I smiled before adding one more 56 : Thank Wyatt.‎ ‎37. A. enthusiastic B. grateful C. curious D. optimistic ‎38. A. introduced B. encouraged C. recommended D. dismissed ‎39. A. bring B. carry C. rely D. concentrate ‎40. A. blank B. excited C. pale D. weak ‎41. A. shouted B. laughed C. jumped D. greeted ‎42. A. class B. supper C. sports D. lunch ‎43. A. pointing B. glaring C. knocking D. coming ‎44. A. worked out B. checked out C. shouted out D. figured out ‎45. A. advocated B. announced C. responded D. reported ‎46. A. finished B. copied C. prepared D. returned ‎47. A. theatre B. novel C. article D. poetry ‎48. A. wandering B wondering C. predicting D. deciding ‎49. A. knew B. remembered C. understood D. noticed ‎50. A. strict B. friendly C. sad D. voluntary ‎51. A. pointed out B. referred to C. found out D. appealed to ‎52. A. idea B. invitation C. command D. preference ‎53. A. meal B. list C. rhyme D. cake ‎54. A. card B. peas C. dessert D. homework ‎55. A. number B. entry C. person D. word 第II卷 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分53分）‎ 第二节（A部分共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分。B部分共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分。两部分共23分）‎ ‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（不多于1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ ‎ Love, wealth and opportunities—parents today do 57.___________(they) best to leave possessions for their kids, 58.________they are rich or poor. But Mark Zuckerberg, the founder and CEO of social media giant Facebook, has something 59.___________(large) in mind.‎ ‎ On Dec. 1, Zuckerberg, 31, announced the birth of his first child and the start 60._______the Chan Zuckerberg Initiative, 61.________organziation for helping people in need. 62. ________(make) the world a better place for their kids to grow up in, Zuckerberg said he and his wife, Priscilla Chan, would give away 99 percent of their facebook shares, 63. ____________now are worth about $45 billion(about 288 billion yuan), to good causes.‎ ‎ However, the shares will not be donated to the organization immediately, 64___________over the course of the couple’s lives.‎ ‎ The 65._____________(announce) was presented as a letter written by the couple to their new baby girl, Max.‎ ‎ According to the letter, the Chan Zuckerberg Initiative 66._____________(help) to realize “human potential” and “equality for all children in the next generation”.‎ B ‎ 67. The pleasure of the film lasted just a short time, failing to touch the __________(deep) of our soul.‎ ‎ 68. Due to a technical problem, the audience could only see the actor standing there _________(move) his lips in silence.‎ ‎ 69. Stop attempting to persuade her. It’s a _______________(waste) effort. She’ll never agree.‎ ‎ 70. We still have a long way to go _________all the problems are finally solved in regard to the Yangtze River.‎ ‎ 71. Tom, why are you still eating your lunch? You’re supposed ________________(finish) it two hours ago.‎ ‎ 72. I feel ____________(catch) between what I want, what my parents want and what my coach wants.‎ ‎ 73. To our relief, it didn’t take him long to adapt _______________the new surroundings.‎ ‎ 74. Whenever my life feels ____________________(bear), her words always inspire me with confidence.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节：短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。 文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1.每处错误及其修改均限一词。‎ ‎ 2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ ‎ Most of us are fond in traveling, because traveling can bring us a lot of benefits. By traveling they can enjoy the beautiful scenery along the way. We will visit varieties of places of interests and taste different delicious foods. Traveling abroad is especially great experience for those who does not have the opportunity to be away from their homeland. We will meet different people and see strangely things when we travel. It will be not only help us know about customs of other people, and also help us gain knowledge of the places we visit. In this way, we can understand what differently other people live and arousing our deep love for our motherland.‎ 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ ‎ 村上春树的随笔中提到“小确幸”一词，意指生活中微小而确实的幸福。生活中小小的幸运与快乐，是流淌在生活的每个瞬间且稍纵即逝的美好，是内心的宽容与满足，是对人生的感恩和珍惜。当我们逐一将这些“小确幸”拾起的时候，也就找到了最简单的快乐！‎ ‎ 请描述生活中让你难忘而感动的一个瞬间或一次经历，并谈谈你的感受。‎ ‎ 注意：‎ ‎1．词数100左右；‎ ‎2．不得出现真实校名和姓名。‎ A happy moment/ experience in my life ‎__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ 长沙市第一中学2016-2017学年度高二第一学期第二次阶段性检测 英语参考答案 题序 ‎1‎ ‎2‎ ‎3‎ ‎4‎ ‎5‎ ‎6‎ ‎7‎ ‎8‎ ‎9‎ ‎10‎ ‎11‎ ‎12‎ ‎13‎ ‎14‎ 答案 A B C A A C A B B C A C B B 题序 ‎15‎ ‎16‎ ‎17‎ ‎18‎ ‎19‎ ‎20‎ ‎21‎ ‎22‎ ‎23‎ ‎24‎ ‎25‎ ‎26‎ ‎27‎ ‎28‎ 答案 A C A C B C A C B B B D C D 题序 ‎29‎ ‎30‎ ‎31‎ ‎32‎ ‎33‎ ‎34‎ ‎35‎ ‎36‎ ‎37‎ ‎38‎ ‎39‎ ‎40‎ ‎41‎ ‎42‎ 答案 C A A D E F B C C A D A C D 题序 ‎43‎ ‎44‎ ‎45‎ ‎46‎ ‎47‎ ‎48‎ ‎49‎ ‎50‎ ‎51‎ ‎52‎ ‎53‎ ‎54‎ ‎55‎ ‎56‎ 答案 A C B A D B D B C A B C D B ‎57. their 58. whether 59. larger 60. of 61. an 62. To make ‎63. which 64. but 65. announcement 66. will help/ helps 67. depth(s) 68. moving ‎69. wasted 70. before 71. to have finished 72. caught 73. to 74. unbearable 短文改错 Most of us are fond in traveling, because traveling can bring us a lot of benefits. By traveling they can enjoy the ‎ ‎ of ‎ ‎ we beautiful scenery along the way. We will visit varieties of places of interests and taste different delicious foods. ‎ ‎ interest Traveling abroad is∧ especially或 ∧great experience for those who does not have the opportunity to be away ‎ ‎ a a do from their homeland. We will meet different people and see strangely things when we travel. It will be not only help ‎ ‎ strange ﹨‎ us know about customs of other people, and also help us gain knowledge of the places we visit. In this way, we can ‎ ‎ but understand what differently other people live and arousing our deep love for our motherland.‎ ‎ how arouse ‎ ‎ ‎【参考范文】‎ A happy moment/ experience in my life shine bright.‎