2018-2019学年新疆乌鲁木齐市第四中学高一下学期期中考试英语试题

2018-2019学年新疆乌鲁木齐市第四中学高一下学期期中考试英语试题

‎2018-2019学年新疆乌鲁木齐市第四中学高一下学期期中考试英语试题 ‎（考试时长：100分钟）‎ 一、阅读理解（共15小题；每题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列四篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项（A、 B、 C和D）中，选出最佳选项。‎ A Have you ever been to a music festival? Well if you live in the UK, the answer is probably yes. The number of festivals has grown greatly over the last few years and now there are around 200 every summer. So let’s look at the history of four famous festivals. The Glastonbury Festival is a five-day festival of contemporary(当代的) performing arts held most years in Somerset, in the south-west of England. There are a rock and pop stage, a jazz stage, the Avalon stage, a theatre comedy stage, a cinema tent, a dance tent and a circus(马戏团). The festival started in1970and about 120,000 people go to it every summer. The Reading Festival is truly world-class with rock and pop bands(乐队) appearing from all over the world, particularly(尤其) the USA. About 80,000 music fans go to Reading every August Bank Holiday. The festival first came to its present site on the banks of the River Thames in Reading in 1971, when it moved from Plumpton in Sussex. It is still on the same site over 47 years later! WOMAD stands for World of Music, Arts and Dance and was the idea of rock musician Peter Gabriel to promote(宣传) world music. The WOMAD Festival started in 1982 and takes place in July at Charlton Park, near Malmesbury in Wiltshire, and you can see different bands and musicians from all over the world. The festival welcomes over 26, 000 visitors each year. The one-day Monsters of Rock Festival at the National Bowl in Milton Keynes was first held in 1980 and gave visitors the chance to hear the very best of hard ‎ rock and heavy metal. There were no festivals between 1996 and 2003 as a result of changing musical fashions, but now it has returned and grown into a two-day festival with a campsite for the 30,000 people who go there in summer days.‎ ‎1. Which festival draws the largest number of fans every year? A. The Reading Festival. B. The WOMAD Festival. C. The Glastonbury Festival. D. The Monsters of Rock Festival.‎ ‎2. What can we learn about the Reading Festival? A. It mainly attracts rock music fans. B. It is especially popular with local bands. C. It is named after the place where it is held. D. It has been held in the same site since it started.‎ ‎3. What do the four festivals have in common?‎ A. All last five days. B. All are held in the summer.‎ C. All take place every year. D. All are held near the River Thames.‎ B Maggie had never experienced an earthquake before, only prepared for it. As long as she could remember, preparing for an earthquake was routine(常规的) at school. Her family as well had made plans in the event of a natural disaster. Earthquakes are so much more common on the West Coast of the United States.‎ Today Maggie was home alone. Maggie knew her mom would be driving home on the busy freeway, thinking about preparing supper for Maggie’s dad. Maggie’s dad would arrive at the airport. He was coming home from a two-week business trip.‎ Maggie arrived home from school at the regular time. She was taking some biscuits from the kitchen cupboard, when she felt it. First just a tremor(微震), then the violent shaking. Maggie quickly ran under the large, wooden table in the dining room. The sounds of breaking glass and the crashing(坠落声) of many things were frightening. But the table remained undamaged, and Maggie hid herself in fear.‎ After what seemed like a century the earthquake appeared to be over. Maggie could hear the sound of water rushing below her in the basement. The smell of natural gas was present in the air. Maggie knew where the main water valve(阀门) was ‎ located. Dad had shown her where it was and how to turn it off. Slowly and carefully she came out from under the table. The once tidy home was now almost unrecognizable. As Maggie reached the open basement door she could see the steps were still in good condition. She carefully made her way down into the dark basement. While still on the steps she felt the water rising and rising. Suddenly Maggie felt a lot of pain as a large ceiling beam(天花板梁) hit her head and shoulder. She fell onto some storage boxes…‎ ‎4. What do we know about Maggie and her family?‎ A. They lived in earthquake country. B. They seldom prepared for an earthquake.‎ C. They had experienced an earthquake before.‎ D. They got an earthquake warning that morning.‎ ‎5. What was Maggie doing when the earthquake took place?‎ A. She was about to clean her home. B. She was about to enter her home.‎ C. She was looking for something to eat. D. She was preparing supper for her family.‎ ‎6. Why did Maggie go to the basement?‎ A. To close the basement door. B. To find some storage boxes.‎ C. To turn off the main water valve. D. To check where the rising water came from.‎ ‎7. What’s the text mainly about?‎ A. Maggie’s first trip to the West Coast. B. Maggie’s first earthquake experience.‎ C. How Maggie survived a natural disaster. D. How Maggie prepared for an earthquake.‎ C These days, it seems like everyone wants to go out into space and live on new planets. ‎ Ratherthan depend on another pre-existing planet, could we make a new, proper planet ourselves?‎ To start with, if we d want to be living on it, we should find a good place in space to put the new planet. We’d want it to be in a habitable zone, meaning the planet should be at the right distance from its star to make sure there would be perfect temperatures and most importantly, liquid(液态的) water.‎ We’d also need the right materials to make the planet. Our Earth is made up of many different elements(元素). If we made our own new planet we’d probably want it to have similar elements and a similar structure(结构) We’ d also want enough water to form some oceans.‎ But even if we get all of the materials creating a new planet like Earth could have many troubles. It might be something more like a huge space station. It would be pretty expensive if we wanted it to be super big.‎ We would probably also need a lot of food since there s going to be many scientists and astronauts out in space working on this project!‎ According to NASA, each astronaut uses about 0. 83 kilograms of food per meal, including 0.12 kilograms of packaging(包装) material. Without the weight of the packaging material, we’d need about 780 kilograms of food just to feed one astronaut for a year.‎ Putting all these together could make it possible to make our own planet one day! In reality, creating a new planet would probably require a very modern technology and there would be tons of other things to think about. And if this is even possible, it likely won’t happen for a very long time.‎ ‎8. What's the first thing we should do if we want to create a new planet?‎ A. To prepare enough food. B. To design its inner structure.‎ C. To find a proper place to set the planet. D. To collect materials similar to our Earth.‎ ‎9. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refers to?‎ A. Our Earth. B. Outer space. C. The new planet. D. The ocean water.‎ ‎10. How much food does an astronaut actually eat each meal?‎ A. About 0. 12 kilograms. B. About 0. 71 kilograms.‎ C. About 0. 83 kilograms. D. About 0.95 kilograms.‎ ‎11. What does the author think of creating a planet?‎ A. It is a waste of money and time. B. It should be one of NASA’S next plans.‎ C. It is not a good idea for humans. D. It won’t come true in the near future D In choosing a friend, one should be very careful. A good friend can help you study. You can have fun together and make each other happy. Sometimes you will meet fair weather friends. They will be with you as long as you have money or luck, but when you are down, they will run away. How do I know when I have found a good friend? I look for certain qualities (品质) of character, especially understanding, honesty and reliability (可靠). Above all else, I look for understanding in a friend. A good friend tries to understand how another person is feeling. He is not quick to judge. Instead, he tries to learn from others. He puts himself in the other person's place, and he tries to think of ways to be helpful. He is also a good listener. At the same time, however, a good friend is honest. He does not look for faults (过错) in others. He notices their good points. In short, a friend will try to understand me and accept me. Another quality of a friend is reliability. I can always depend on (信赖) a good friend. If he tells me he will meet me somewhere at a certain time, I can be sure that he will be there. If I need a favor, he will do his best to help me. If I am in trouble, he will not run away from me. There is a fourth quality that makes a friend special. A special friend is someone with whom we can have fun. We should enjoy our lives, and we would enjoy our friendship. That is why I especially like friends who are fun to be with. A good friend likes the same things I like. We share experience (经验) and learn from each other. A good friend has a good sense of humor (幽默), too. He likes to laugh with me. That is how we share in the joy of being friends. And I know that he is looking for the same quality in me. ‎ ‎ When I meet someone who is reliable, honest, and understanding, I know I've found a friend! 12. Which of the following qualities the writer thinks is the most important in choosing a friend? A. understanding. B. honesty. C. reliability. D. a sense of humor. 13. If you have fair weather friends, ______ . A. they will give you all that they have when you need help. B. you will be refused when you get into trouble. C. you will become rich. D. you can be sure that you get real friends. 14. Good friends need to ______. A. always point out each other's mistakes. B. be helped with money. C. understand each other's feelings. D. have money or luck. 15. This passage mainly discuss ______ . A. the qualities of a friend. B. where to choose friends. C. how to get along with friends. D. the importance of having a friend.‎ 二、七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选 There are some children who love to fly and then there are the kids who are afraid of the unknown. The following tips may help you if you want to travel with your children by plane.‎ ‎● 16 If you tell the child he will soon be flying on an airplane and leave it at that, his imagination can turn to fear. Instead, tell him how wonderful it is to fly.‎ ‎● Don’t tell children about the dangers of flying. 17 And you can promise him that the plane will not crash.‎ ‎● Read a book to your children. 18 Reading may also make your children fall asleep.‎ ‎● Bring a comfort thing that your child enjoys. 19 Be sure to bring that blanket along as it will provide a safety net for the child. Having this blanket along ‎ may also help him fall asleep. Bring a safe electronic device that shows movies or supports video games, and offers children puzzles.‎ ‎● Bring snacks. Children are picky eaters and may not like the food being offered. Three to five hours can be a long time on an airplane without food. 20 When they are upset, it is easier to let fear of the unknown take control.‎ A. Children may get upset when they are hungry.‎ B. Tell your children how much fun it is to fly before the trip.‎ C. Most kids have a stuffed animal or a blanket that they love.‎ D. If a child brings them up, tell him that flying is perfectly safe.‎ E. Leave a little extra time so you can make your children walk.‎ F. Bring a favorite book and a new book your kids have never read. G. Your phone is another favorite tool for keeping them happy on a flight.‎ 三、完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ A little girl created the perfect Mother’s Day gift. It was a drawing of a 21 on white paper with the words "For mom: love, love, love" decorated in hearts. She folded(折叠) her letter, 22 then she lost it.‎ For most people, that would be the 23 of this story, but this story has a different result: James Carrell 24 the letter. He had just 25 his mother, wishing her a happy Mother’s Day. After he got off the phone, Carrell saw the 26 on the ground outside of a hardware(五金器具) store in Manvel in Texas, United States."I 27 it was a note" said Carrell. "I 28 it and saw the flower and hearts. It 29 moved me." Carrell thought the letter would 30 ‎ someone’s day and maybe he could find the 31 , so he posted it in the Talk of Alvin Facebook group. The message 32 a lot of people, especially one man.‎ ‎"I was sitting at my friend’s house and saw a man 33 , " said Carrell.‎ His Facebook comments(评论) included a message from Roberto Alvarado. He wrote, "I can’t 34 you found my baby’s letter. "Carrell reached out to Alvarado ‎ to 35 the letter. It took a few days, but the men finally 36 on Thursday night, one day after Alvarado’s daughter Natalie celebrated her seventh birthday.‎ ‎" 37 the letter made it home," said Alvarado. " We are 38 for what James Carrell did.”‎ We often forget the power of 39 things, but for this family from Alvin, Carrell’s small act left a(n) 40 impression(影响).‎ ‎21. A. baby B. girl C. card D. flower 22. A. so B. once C. but D. until 23. A. end B. part C. scene D. cause 24. A. wrote B. found C. remembered D. answered 25. A. promised B. invited C. seen D. called 26. A. paper B. words C. pen D. tools 27. A. proved B. explained C. knew D. heard 28. A. opened B. put C. gave D. made 29. A. hardly B. really C. lightly D. repeatedly 30. A. start B. continue C. ruin D. brighten 31. A. owner B. man C. house D. thing 32. A. protected B. helped C. touched D. changed 33. A. leave B. arrive C. try D. reply 34. A. say B. believe C. understand D. accept 35. A. read B. sign C. return D. get 36. A. failed B. met C. stopped D. replied 37. A. Naturally B. Suddenly C. Secretly D. Finally 38. A. ready B. thankful C. famous D. fit 39. A. little B. old C. special D. boring 40. A. opposite B. unclear C. lasting D. general 四、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ If you’re on a dark countryside hill some night, 41 (look) up at the ‎ sky. A band(束) of light may appear that looks like milk spilled(洒落) across the sky. The ancient Romans called the band via lacteal which means "milky road" 42 "milky way."‎ The band of light that you see isn’t actually milk, of course—it s a galaxy(星系). A galaxy can contain many millions of stars held together by the force of gravity. Our solar system, 43 includes the sun. Earth, and other planets, is part of this galaxy called the Milky Way.‎ The Milky Way 44 (make) up of hundreds of billions of stars like our sun. And like our sun, most of these 45 (star) have at least one planet moving around 46 (they). Earth is located about halfway between the center of the Milky Way and its outer edge.‎ At the center of the Milky Way is one of the 47 (strange) and deadliest things in the universe: a black hole. 48 (scientist) believe a black hole lies at the center of most galaxies. The Milky Way’s black hole is called Sagittarius A*. Its gravity is 49 strong that it pulls in anything that gets too close, including stars. So we’re 50 (luck) that Earth is located far away from the center!‎ 五、 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有十处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处仅涉及一个单词的增加，删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词加一个漏字符号( )，并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线( )划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1. 每处错误及修改均仅限一词。‎ ‎2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ It was an early Saturday’s morning in August. When we reached the kitchen, there was a big surprise for my brother—his favorite breakfast. Clear, it was a important day for him, as he would left home to go to college. After finish breakfast, my brother said to me, "It's time, brother." I think he was meaning his time leave the house. However he explained all of the important work that I would need to do after he was ‎ gone. He said that it was time for you to take on a bigger role in the family. At that point, I understood that my brother meant. He was teaching me about family, love or duty.‎ 五、 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 某英文报纸就“倡导学生应该如何进行低碳（节能）生活、环境保护” 这一话题进行征文，请你投稿。‎ 保护地球环境、倡导低碳生活是我们的职责。作为一名中学生，我们可以做一些事情去保护我们的环境。事实上，最简单的日常行为也能对环境产生很大的影响。请谈谈你平时的具体做法，你有何体会，并且今后打算做什么。‎ 注意: 1.词数100左右;‎ ‎2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ 友情提示：‎ greenhouse effect（温室效应）, vehicle exhaust（汽车尾气）, duty, the low carbon life(低碳生活), protect, save energy, turn off ‎参考答案 一、阅读理解（共15小题；每题2分，满分30分）‎ ‎1-5 CCBAC 6-10 CBCCB 11-15 DABCA 二、七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ B D F C A 三、完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎21-25 DCABD 26-30 ACABD 31-35 ACDBC 36-40 BDBAC 四、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎41. look 42. or 43. which 44. is made 45. stars ‎ ‎46. them 47. strangest 48. Scientists 49.so 50. lucky 五、 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ Saturday’s---Saturday Clear----Clearly a important-------a变an would left-------left变leave After finish--------finish变finishing I think he was---------think变though is time leave----leave前加to for you to take----you变me understood that-----that变what love or duty------or变and 六、略