2018-2019学年江西省上饶中学高二上学期期中考试英语试题（实验、重点、体艺班） Word版

2018-2019学年江西省上饶中学高二上学期期中考试英语试题（实验、重点、体艺班） Word版

考试时间：2018年11月22日—23日 上饶中学2018-2019学年高二上学期期中考试 英 语 试 卷（实验、重点、体艺班）‎ ‎ 时间：120分钟 分值：150分 第Ι卷（选择题，满分100分） ‎ 第一部分　听力(共两节，满分30分)‎ 第一节　(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ 例： How much is the shirt? ‎ A.£ 19.15 B.£ 9.18 C.£ 9.15 ‎ 答案是 C。 ‎ 1. What time is it now? ‎ A.9:10 B.9:50 C.10:00‎ ‎2. What does the woman think of the weather? ‎ A. It’s nice. B. It’s warm. C. It’s cold.‎ ‎3. What will the man do? ‎ A. Attend a meeting B. Give a lecture C. Leave his office ‎4. What is the woman’s opinion about the course?‎ ‎ A. Too hard B. Worth taking C. Very easy ‎5. What does the woman want the man to do?‎ ‎ A. Speak louder. B. Apologize to her C. Turn off the radio 第二节　(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6，7题。‎ ‎6. How long did Michael stay in China? ‎ A. Five days B. One week C. Two weeks ‎7. Where did Michael go last year? ‎ A. Russia B. Norway C. India 听第7段材料，回答第8，9题。‎ ‎8. What food does Sally like? ‎ A. Chicken B. Fish C. Eggs ‎9. What are the speakers going to do?‎ A. Cook dinner. B. Go shopping. C. Order dishes.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. Where are the speakers?‎ A. In a hospital B. In the office C. At home ‎11. When is the report due?‎ A. Thursday B. Friday C. Next Monday.‎ ‎12. What does George suggest Stephanie do with the report?‎ A. Improve it. B. Hand it in later. C. Leave it with him.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?‎ A. Salesperson and customer.‎ B. Homeowner and cleaner.‎ C. Husband and wife.‎ ‎14. What kind of apartment do the speakers prefer？‎ A. One with two bedrooms. B. One without furniture.‎ C. One near a market ‎15. How much rent should one pay for the one-bedroom apartment?‎ A. $350. B. $400 C. $415‎ ‎16. Where is the apartment the speakers would like to see?‎ A. On Lake Street B. On Market Street C. On South Street.‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. What percentage of the world’s tea exports go to Britain?‎ ‎ A. Almost 15% B. About 30% C. Over 40%‎ ‎18. Why do tea tasters taste tea with milk?‎ ‎ A. Most British people drink tea that way.‎ ‎ B. Tea tastes much better with milk.‎ ‎ C. Tea with milk is healthy.‎ ‎19. Who suggests a price for each tea?‎ ‎ A. Tea tasters. B. Tea exporters. C. Tea companies.‎ ‎20. What is the speaker talking about?‎ ‎ A. The life of tea tasters.‎ ‎ B. Afternoon tea in Britain.‎ ‎ C. The London Tea Trade Centre.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项。‎ A My First Marathon(马拉松)‎ A month before my first marathon, one of my ankles was injured and this meant not running for two weeks, leaving me only two weeks to train. Yet, I was determined to go ahead.‎ I remember back to my 7th year in school. In my first P.E. class, the teacher required us to run laps and then hit a softball. I didn't do either well. He later informed me that I was“ not athletic”.‎ The idea that I was "not athletic" stuck with me for years. When I started running in my 30s，I realized running was a battle against myself, not about competition or whether or not I was athletic. It was all about the battle against my own body and mind. A test of wills!‎ The night before my marathon, I dreamt that I couldn't even find the finish line. I woke up sweating and nervous, but ready to prove something to myself.‎ Shortly after crossing the start line, my shoe laces (鞋带)became untied. So I stopped to readjust. Not the start I wanted！‎ At mile3, I passed a sign:“ GO FOR IT, RUNNERS!”‎ By mile 17, I became out of breath and the once injured ankle hurt badly. Despite the pain, I stayed the course walking a bit and then running again.‎ By mile 21, I was starving！‎ As I approached mile 23, I could see my wife waving a sign. She is my biggest fan. She never minded the alarm clock sounding at 4 a.m. or questioned my expenses on running.‎ I was one of the final runners to finish. But I finished! And I got a medal. In fact, I got the same medal as the one that the guy who came in first place had.‎ Determined to be myself,, move forward, free of shame and worldly labels(世俗标签)， I can now call myself a “marathon winner”.‎ ‎21. A month before the marathon, the author . ‎ A. was well trained B. felt scared ‎ C. made up his mind to run D. lost hope ‎22. Why did the author mention the P.E. class in his 7th year?‎ ‎ A. To acknowledge the support of his teacher.‎ B. To amuse the readers with a funny story.‎ C. To show he was not talented in sports.‎ D. To share a precious memory.‎ ‎23. How was the author's first marathon?‎ A. He made it. B. He quit halfway.‎ C. He got the first prize. D. He walked to the end.‎ ‎24. What does the story mainly tell us?‎ ‎ A. A man owes his success to his family support.‎ B. A winner is one with a great effort of will.‎ C. Failure is the mother of success.‎ D. One is never too old to learn.‎ B In its early history, Chicago had floods frequently, especially in the spring, making the streets so muddy that people, horses, and carts got stuck. An old joke that was popular at the time went something like this: A man is stuck up to his waist ‎ in a muddy Chicago street. Asked if he needs help, he replies, "No, thanks. I've got a good horse under me."‎ The city planners decided to build an underground drainage (排水) system, but there simply wasn't enough difference between the height of the ground level and the water level. The only two options were to lower the Chicago River or raise the city.‎ An engineer named Ellis Chesbrough convinced the city that it had no choice but to build the pipes above ground and then cover them with dirt. This raised the level of the city's streets by as much as 12 feet.‎ This of course created a new problem: dirt practically buried the first floors of every building in Chicago. Building owners were faced with a choice: either change the first floors of their buildings into basements, and the second stories into main floors, or hoist the entire buildings to meet the new street level. Small wood-frame buildings could be lifted fairly easily. But what about large, heavy structures like Tremont Hotel, which was a six-story brick building?‎ That's where George Pullman came in. He had developed some house-moving skills successfully. To lift a big structure like the Tremont Hotel, Pullman would place thousands of jackscrews (螺旋千斤顶) beneath the building's foundation. One man was assigned to operate each section of roughly 10 jackscrews. At Pullman's signal each man turned his jackscrew the same amount at the same time, thereby raising the building slowly and evenly. Astonishingly, the Tremont Hotel stayed open during the entire operation, and many of its guests didn't even notice anything was happening. ‎ Some people like to say that every problem has a solution. But in Chicago's early history, every engineering solution seemed to create a new problem. Now that Chicago's waste water was draining efficiently into the Chicago River, the city's next step was to clean the polluted river.‎ ‎25. The author mentions the joke to show ______.‎ A. horses were fairly useful in Chicago B. Chicago's streets were extremely muddy C. Chicago was very dangerous in the spring ‎ D. the Chicago people were particularly humorous ‎26. The city planners were convinced by Ellis Chesbrough to_______.‎ ‎ A. get rid of the street dirt ‎ ‎ B. lower the Chicago River C. fight against heavy floods ‎ D. build the pipes above ground ‎27. The underlined word "hoist" in Paragraph 4 means "_______".‎ A. change B. lift C. repair D. decorate ‎28. What can we conclude about the moving operation of the Tremont Hotel?‎ ‎ A. It went on smoothly as intended.‎ ‎ B. It interrupted the business of the hotel.‎ ‎ C. It involved Pullman turning ten jackscrews.‎ ‎ D. It separated the building from its foundation.‎ C One of the latest trends（趋势） in American Childcare is Chinese au pairs. ‎ Au Pair in Stamford, Conn, for example, has got increasing numbers of request for Chinese au pairs from aero to around 4, 000 since 2004. And that’s true all across the country. ‎ ‎    “I thought it would be useful for him to learn Chinese at an early age” Joseph Stocke, the managing director of a company, says of his 2-year old son. “I would at least like to  give him the chance to use the language in the future. ” After only six months of being cared by a 25-year-old woman from China, the boy can already understand basic Chinese daily expressions, his dad says. ‎ ‎    Li Drake, a Chinese native raising two children in Minnesota with an American husband, had another reason for looking for an au pair from China: She didn’t want her children to miss out on their roots. ” Because I am Chinese, my husband and I wanted the children to keep exposed to(接触) the language and culture. ” she says. ‎ ‎    “Staying with a native speaker is better for children than simply sitting in a classroom, ” says Suzanne Flynn, a professor in language education of Children. ”But parents must understand that just one year with au pair is unlikely to produce ‎ wonders.  Complete mastery demands continued learning until the age of 10 or 12. ”‎ ‎  The popularity if au pairs from China has been strengthened by the increasing numbers of American parents who want their children who want their children to learn Chinese. It is expected that American demand for au pairs will continue to rise in the next few years. ‎ ‎29. What does the term “au pair” in the text mean?‎ A. A mother raising her children on her own ‎ B. A child learning a foreign language at home C.professor in language education of children ‎ D. A young foreign woman taking care of children.  ‎ ‎30. Li Drake has her children study Chinese because she wants them ______.‎ A. to live in China some day B. to speak the language at home ‎ C.to catch up with other children D. to learn about the Chinese culture ‎31. What can we infer from the text?‎ ‎ A. Learning Chinese is becoming popular In America,‎ ‎ B. Educated woman do better in looking after children ‎ ‎ C. Chinese au pairs need to improve their English skills. ‎ ‎ D. Children can learn a foreign language well in six months. ‎ D Metro Pocket Guide Metrorail(地铁)‎ Each passenger needs a farecard to enter and go out. Up to two children under age five may travel free with a paying customer.  ‎ Farecard machine are in every station. Bring small bills because there are no change machines in the stations and farecard machine only provide up to $ 5 in change. ‎ Get one of unlimited Metrorail rides with a One Day Pass. Buy it from a farecard machine in Metro stations. Use it after 9:30 a. m. until closing on weekdays, and all day on weekends and holidays. ‎ Hours of Service ‎   Open: 5 a. m. Mon.-Fri.           7a. m. Sat.—Sun.‎ ‎   Close: midnight Sun.—Thur.   3 a.m. Fri.-Sat. nights   ‎ ‎   Last train times vary. To avoid missing the last train, please check the last train times posted in the stations. ‎ Metrobus ‎  When paying with exact change, the fare is $ 1. 35 . When paying with a smarTrip card, the fare is $1. 25‎ Fares for the Senior /disabled customers Senior citizens 65 and older and disabled customers may ride for half the regular fare. On Metrorail and Metrobus, use a senior/disabled fare card or SmarTrip card. For more information about buying senior/disabled farecards, SmarTrip cards and passes, please visit MetroOpen - Doors. com or call 202-637-7000 and 202-637-8000. ‎ Senior citizens and disabled customers can get free guide on how to use proper Metrobus and Metrorail services by calling 202-962-1100‎ Travel tips （提示）‎ Avoid riding during weekday rush periods –before 9:30 a. m. and between 4 and 6 p. m. ‎ If you lose something on a bus or train or in a station, please call Lost & Found at 202-962-1195. ‎ ‎32. What should you know about farecard machines?‎ ‎    A. They start selling tickets at 9:30 a. m. ‎ ‎    B. They are connected to change machines. ‎ ‎    C. They offer special service to the elderly. ‎ ‎    D. They make change for no more than $5. ‎ ‎33. At what time does Metrorail stop service on Saturday?‎ ‎    A. At midnight B. At 3 a. m. C. At 5 am D. At 7 p. m. ‎ ‎34. What is good about a SmarTrip? card?‎ A. It is convenient for old people B. It saves money for its users C. It can be bought at any time D. It is sold on the Internet. ‎ ‎35. Which number should you call if you lose something on the Metro?‎ A. 202-962-1195 B. 202-962-1100 C. 202-637-7000       D. 202-637-8000‎ 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Everyone knows that fish is good for health. 36 But it seems that many people don’t cook fish at home. Americans eat only about fifteen pounds of fish per person per year, but we eat twice as much fish in restaurants as at home. Buying, storing, and cooking fish isn’t difficult. 37 This text is about how to buy and cook fish in an easy way.‎ ‎ 38 Fresh fish should smell sweet: You should feel that you’re standing at the ocean’s edge. Any fishy or strong smell means the fish isn’t fresh. 39 When you have bought a fish and arrive home, you’d better store the fish in the refrigerator if you don’t cook it immediately, but fresh fish should be stored in your fridge for only a day or two. Frozen fish isn’t as tasty as the fresh one.‎ There are many common methods used to cook fish.   40    First, clean it and season it with your choice of spices (调料). Put the whole fish on a plate and steam it in a steam pot for 8 to 10 minutes if it weighs about one pound. (A larger one will take more time.) Then, it’s ready to serve.‎ A. Do not buy it.‎ B. The easiest is to steam it.‎ C. This is how you can do it.‎ D. It just requires a little knowledge.‎ E. The fish will go bad within hours.‎ F. When buying fish, you should first smell it.‎ G. The fats in fish are thought to help prevent heart disease.‎ 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ In our modern world, when something wears out, we throw it away and buy a new one. The 41 is that countries around the world have growing mountains of 42 because people are throwing out more and more rubbish than ever before. ‎ How did we 43 a throwaway society? First of all, it is now easier to 44 an object than to spend time and money to repair it. 45 modern manufacturing ‎ ‎(制造业) and technology, companies are able to produce products quickly and inexpensively. Products are plentiful and 46 .‎ Another cause is our 47 of disposable (一次性的) products. As 48 people, we are always looking for 49 to save time and make our lives easier. Companies 50 thousands of different kinks of disposable products: paper plates, plastic cups, and cameras, to name a few（略举几例）.‎ Our appetite for new products also 51 to the problem. We are 52 buying new things. Advertisements persuade us that 53 is better and that we will be happier with the latest products. The result is that we 54 useful possessions to make room for new ones.‎ All around the world, we can see the 55 of this throwaway lifestyle. Mountains of rubbish just keep getting bigger. To 56 the amount of rubbish and to protect the 57 , more governments are requiring people to recycle materials. 58 , this is not enough to solve (解决) our problem.‎ Maybe there is another way out. We need to repair our possessions 59 throwing them away. We also need to rethink our attitudes about 60 . Repairing our possessions and changing our spending habits may be the best way to reduce the amount of rubbish and take care of our environment.‎ ‎41. A. key B. reason C. project D. problem ‎42. A. gifts B. rubbish C. debt D. products ‎43. A. face B. become C. observe D. change ‎44. A. hide B. control C. replace D. withdraw ‎45. A. Thanks to B. As to C. Except for D. Regardless of ‎46. A. safe B. funny C. cheap D. powerful ‎47. A. love B. lack C. prevention D. division ‎48. A. sensitive B. kind C. brave D. busy ‎49. A. ways B. places C. jobs D. friends ‎50. A. donate B. receive C. produce D. preserve ‎51. A. adapts B. returns C. responds D. contributes ‎52. A. tired of B. addicted to C. worried about D. ashamed for ‎53. A. newer B. stronger C. higher D. larger ‎54. A. pick up B. pay for C. hold onto D. throw away ‎55. A. advantages B. purposes C. functions D. consequences ‎56. A. show B. record C. decrease D. measure ‎57. A. technology B. environment C. consumers D. brands ‎58. A. However B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. Meanwhile ‎59. A. by B. in favor of C. after D. instead of ‎60. A. spending B. collecting C. repairing D. advertising 第II卷 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当内容（不多于3个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Kate McClure’s car ran out of gas one night on her way into Philadelphia. She got out of her car and started making her way towards the _61_(near) gas station. That’s when she met Johnny. Johnny, _62_homeless man, sat on the side of the road every day, _63_(hold) a sign. He saw Kate pull over and knew something was wrong. He told Kate to get back in the car and lock the doors. A few minutes__64_(late), he came back with a red gas can. He _65_(use)his last ＄20 to help Kate make it home safe. Johnny wasn’t expecting anything _66_return,but Kate was determined _67_(pay) him back. She started by stopping by his spot and repaying him for the gas. She gave him a jacket, gloves ,a hat, warm socks and ＄100. _68_,Kate wanted to do more. So, she created a GoFundMe page to help him out. The _69_(donate)started pouring in and quickly went from zero to more than ＄379,000. It was just less than a week ago _70_Johnny was sleeping under a bridge. Now, he’s been given what he calls a second chance. Johnny said he wanted to give a lot of money away to help others. ‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌中间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处，每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：把缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎ 2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ My dream school starts at 8:30 a.m. and ends at 3:30 p.m. They are three lessons in the ‎ morning and two in the afternoon. We didn’t need to do so many homework. Therefore , we ‎ have more time with after-school activities. For example, we can do reading for one and a half ‎ hour and play sports for one hour every day.‎ ‎ My dream school look like a big garden. There are all kinds of the flowers and trees around ‎ the classroom buildings. We can lie on the grass for a rest, or sat by the lake listening music. The ‎ teachers here are kind and helpfully. They are not only our teachers but also our friends.‎ 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 美国某中学举办英语暑假训练营，开设以下课程:cooking, swimming, giving first aid,playing football/basketball。‎ 假定你是李华，请你写封申请信，报名参加其中一门课程的学习。内容包括:‎ ‎1.你感兴趣的一门课程；‎ ‎2.为什么想学这门课程；‎ ‎3.你期望从中学到什么。‎ 注意: 1.词数100左右；‎ ‎2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ Dear Sir/Madam,‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Yours,‎ LiHua 上饶中学高二年级第二次月考 ‎ 英语答题卷 ‎(理科实验重点、文科重点、特长班)‎ 听力：（每题1.5分，共30分）‎ ‎ 01 [A][B] [C] [D] 06 [A] [B] [C] [D] 11 [A] [B] [C] [D] 16 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 02 [A] [B] [C] [D] 07 [A] [B] [C] [D] 12 [A] [B] [C] [D] 17 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 03 [A] [B] [C] [D] 08 [A] [B] [C] [D] 13 [A] [B] [C] [D] 18 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 04 [A] [B] [C] [D] 09 [A] [B] [C] [D] 14 [A] [B] [C] [D] 19 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 05 [A] [B] [C] [D] 10 [A] [B] [C] [D] 15 [A] [B] [C] [D] 20 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ 阅读：（每题2分，共40分）‎ ‎ 21 [A] [B] [C] [D] 26 [A] [B] [C] [D] 31 [A] [B] [C] [D] 36 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]‎ ‎ 22 [A] [B] [C] [D] 27 [A] [B] [C] [D] 32 [A] [B] [C] [D] 37 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]‎ ‎ 23 [A] [B] [C] [D] 28 [A] [B] [C] [D] 33 [A] [B] [C] [D] 38 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]‎ ‎ 24 [A] [B] [C] [D] 29 [A] [B] [C] [D] 34 [A] [B] [C] [D] 39 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]‎ ‎ 25 [A] [B] [C] [D] 30 [A] [B] [C] [D] 35 [A] [B] [C] [D] 40 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]‎ ‎ 完型：（每题1.5分，共30分）‎ ‎ 41 [A] [B] [C] [D] 46 [A] [B] [C] [D] 51 [A] [B] [C] [D] 56 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 42 [A] [B] [C] [D] 47 [A] [B] [C] [D] 52 [A] [B] [C] [D] 57 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 43 [A] [B] [C] [D] 48 [A] [B] [C] [D] 53 [A] [B] [C] [D] 58 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 44 [A] [B] [C] [D] 49 [A] [B] [C] [D] 54 [A] [B] [C] [D] 59 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 45 [A] [B] [C] [D] 50 [A] [B] [C] [D] 55 [A] [B] [C] [D] 60 [A] [B] [C] [D]‎ ‎ 语法填空：（每题1.5分 共15分）‎ ‎ 61 ____________ 62.____________ 63.____________ 64.____________ 65.____________‎ ‎ 66.____________ 67.____________ 68.____________ 69.____________ 70.____________‎ 短文改错：（每题1分，共10分）‎ My dream school starts at 8:30 a.m. and ends at 3:30 p.m. They are three lessons in the ‎ morning and two in the afternoon. We didn’t need to do so many homework. Therefore , we ‎ have more time with after-school activities. For example, we can do reading for one and a half ‎ hour and play sports for one hour every day.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ My dream school look like a big garden. There are all kinds of the flowers and trees around ‎ the classroom buildings. We can lie on the grass for a rest, or sat by the lake listening music. The ‎ teachers here are kind and helpfully. They are not only our teachers but also our friends.‎ 书面表达：（满分25分）‎ Dear Sir/Madam,‎ ‎________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________‎ ‎______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ Yours,‎ LiHua 上饶中学高二年级上学期期中考试英语参考答案 ‎ (理科实验重点、文科重点、特长班)‎ 听力答案（2015全国卷1）‎ ‎1-20 ACABC BABCB ABCAB CBAAC ‎ 阅读理解： A篇（2018年北京卷）21-24 CCAB B篇（2015年湖南卷）25-28 BDBA ‎ C篇（2014全国卷二）29-31 DDA D 篇（2014全国卷二 ）32-35DBBA 七选五：（2016年全国卷3）36 - 40 GDFAB 完形答案：（2015年安徽卷）‎ ‎41 -.45 DBBCA 46- 50 CADAC 51 – 55 DBADD 56-60 CBADA 语法填空：‎ ‎61.nearest 62.a 63.holding 64.later 65.had used ‎ ‎66. in 67.to pay 68.However 69.donations 70. that 短文改错：‎ My dream school starts at 8:30 a.m. and ends at 3:30 p.m. They are three lessons in the ‎ ‎ There morning and two in the afternoon. We didn’t need to do so many homework . Therefore , we ‎ ‎ don’t much have more time with after-school activities. For example, we can do reading for one and a half ‎ ‎ for hour and play sports for one hour every day.‎ hours ‎ ‎ ‎ My dream school look like a big garden. There are all kinds of the flowers and trees around ‎ ‎ looks 删除of后的the ‎ the classroom buildings. We can lie on the grass for a rest, or sat by the lake listening music. The ‎ ‎ sit music前加to teachers here are kind and helpfully. They are not only our teachers but also our ‎ friends.‎ ‎ helpful 参考范文：‎ I am very glad to hear that your school will start an English Summer Camp which includes a variety of courses，such as cooking，swimming，giving first aid，playing football or basketball. I am interested in giving first aid and I am writing to sign up for the course.‎ I choose to attend the course due to the fact that first aid is of great importance to people. If a person gets injured and needs medical care before a doctor can be called in, every second counts in saving life，in which case the knowledge of first aid can help save lives. Besides personally, I plan to study medicine and devote my life to medical research. Hopefully，the course will help me to learn about how to deal with medical emergencies.‎ I would appreciate it if you could take my application into consideration. Yours,‎ ‎ Li Hua