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2017-2018学年湖南省宁远县第一中学高二12月月考英语试题
2017-2018学年湖南省宁远县第一中学高二12月月考英语试题 本试卷分为四个部分,共8页。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C 1. What are the speakers talking about? A. Dinner. B. Tip. C. Price. 2. What will the speakers do? A. Stay at home. B. Go to a clothes shop. C. Go out. 3. What will the weather be like tomorrow? A. Rainy. B. Cold. C. Windy. 4. When will the train arrive? A. 4:45. B. 2:45. C. 2:30. 5. Where will the woman meet the reporters? A. At the office. B. At a restaurant. C. At the factory. 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman do first? A. Clean the toilet. B. Make lunch. C. Clean the house. 7. What should the man clean? A. The bathroom. B. The kitchen. C. The living room. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. What are the speakers talking about? A. Buying a car. B. Choosing a gift. C. Using a computer. 9. What do the two speakers decide to buy for David at last? A. A computer. B. A car. C. A wallet. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. What is the woman? A. A student. B. A teacher. C. A swimming player. 11. What will the woman do from 3 pm to 5 pm? A. Attend a meeting. B. Have classes. C. Go swimming. 12. When will the speakers meet? A. At 5:30 pm. B. At 6:00 pm. C. At 7:00 pm. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers? A. Salesperson and customer. B. Brother and sister. C. Wife and husband. 14. Where does the woman want to go? A. To a conference. B. To a meeting. C. To a party. 15. What does the man suggest the woman should do ? A. Go to the party early. B. Take more clothes. C. Take more money. 16. What color does the man think best suits the woman to the party? A. Blue. B. Purple. C. White. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. When did the yearly Book Festival start to be held? A. In 1983. B. In 1997. C. In 2004. 18. Where is the home of the Book Festival? A. The Charlotte Square Gardens. B. The historic New Town. C. Princes Street. 19. What is the atmosphere of the Book Festival like? A. Academic. B. Noisy. C. Relaxed. 20. How long does the Book Festival last every year? A. Three weeks. B. Three days. C. One month. 第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文;从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选项涂黑 A We invite school students all over the world to join in the first quarterly short story writing contest. Entry is free. You can win attractive prize money, certificates and publication opportunities. Start the creative spirit in you! ◆Deadline is 20th of April 2016. ◆Winners will be announced on the 30th of April, on this website. ◆The contest will be in three categories: 1) Sub-junior (7-9 years) 2) Junior (10-12 years) 3) Senior (13-16 years) ◆The required length of the story is as follows: 1) Sub-junior – 300-500 words 2) Junior – 500-700 words 3) Senior- 700 -1000 words ◆Proof of age is required (scan or take a photo of your birth certificate/identity card/certificate from school). ◆Send your story and the proof of age as attachments to shortstorycontest@kidsfun.com ◆Mention the following information in your email: a) Your name b) Email address (parent's/teacher's email address can be used here) c) Phone number (optional) d) Residential address ◆The story should be the original, unpublished contribution. ◆The theme of the short story is your choice. ◆There will be three winners in each category. ◆The prizes for all categories are as follows: First prize – $75, certificate, and publication on the website Second prize-$50, certificate, and publication on the website Third prize-$25, certificate, and publication on the website ◆All outstanding short stories will be published on our website www.kidsfun.com ◆Stories will be judged on the basis of content, language and style of writing. ◆Contact us at enquiry@kidsfun.com. 21. If you want to participate in this short story writing contest, you have to______. A. be an American student. B. pay for the entry. C. be between 7 years of age and 16. D. send your story before Apr. 30th, 2016. 22. Which of the following is NOT a requirement? A. Proof of age. B. Email address. C. Phone number. D. Residential address. 23. According to the announcement, which of the following is NOT true? A. Only the winners have opportunities to publish their stories on the website. B. More than one contest of this kind will probably take place in 2016. C. There will be nine winners for this contest. D. This contest will help to develop many students’ creativity in story writing. B Why are some people sharp at 95 years old, while others begin struggling with mental clearness in their 50s? A lot of it has to do with genetics, but certain lifestyle factors also play an important role in how our brain ages. So while you can't control your genes, you can avoid these four big brain mistakes. Foods high in sugar, unhealthy fats and processed foods -- i.e., the typical American diet -- can damage your brain over time. Studies have shown that extra sugar consumption can affect learning and memory, and increase your chance of suffering from neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's. A Mediterranean-based diet, on the other hand, can help protect the brain from signs of aging. Following this type of diet -- which includes a lot of fish, healthy fats, whole grains and vegetables -- could reduce Alzheimer's risk by up to 50 percent. Living in a smoggy city might be bad news for your brain. The researchers found that people who lived closer to a major highway had greater markers of pollution in their lungs and blood, which increased their risk for a form of brain damage known as "silent strokes". Increased pollution volume was also linked to decreased brain volume -- a major sign of aging. There are a number of scary health effects associated with sleep deprivation(剥夺), from a higher risk of stroke and diabetes to damaged cognitive(认知的)functioning. Over the years, losing shut-eye can also speed up brain aging. Researchers found that the less that older adults slept, the faster their brains aged. Use it or lose it! If you want to keep your brain sharp, keep it engaged. It doesn't have to be a challenging intellectual task or a brain-training game, either -- simply engaging in everyday activities like reading, cooking or having a conversation can make a difference. The bottom line? Doing novel things promotes neurogenesis(神经形成), the creation of new neurons in the brain. So get outside, learn, discover and try something you have never done to keep your brain sharp through the decades. 24. What is the feature of the typical American diet? A. Rich sugar. B. Low fats. C. Plentiful fiber. D. Rich grains. 25. According to the passage, which of the following is a major sign of aging? A. The brain becoming larger. B. The brain becoming smaller. C. The body gaining weight. D. The sleep getting less. 26. What should the old do to prevent the brain from aging? A. Keep from being busy. B. Live in a modern city. C. Stay away from any fats. D. Avoid staying up late. 27. Which of the following can contribute to neurogenesis? A. Doing something risky. B. Doing something new. C. Doing something funny. D. Doing something dull. C For those of you familiar with the show Criminal Minds, you’ll know very well that one of the best characters on that show is, without doubt, Derek Morgan. Today I learn that Shemar Moore, who plays Derek, has filmed his last episode(集) for Criminal Minds and it aired yesterday. So naturally I watched it this morning while getting ready for class and I cried….a lot. I reflected on why I loved Derek so much, besides the fact that he’s hot, and thought about all of the lessons he has taught me along the way. You don’t have to be strong. Derek was always known to be a very private individual. He never talked much about his family or his history. The past was the past to him and he didn’t want anyone to judge him for things that happened. But when the situation demanded it, he let himself open up and trust his team. He showed his weaknesses and let the team carry him through tough times. It took a lot for him, but he realized that you can’t go through life without a support system. You don’t have to be strong all the time when you have people to catch you when you fall. Love comes in many forms. Love is the way you protect your team from harm. Love is the way you get angry when someone from the team dies. Love is the orders you take from your boss and the way you disobey them when you know judgment has been clouded. Love is the lengths you will go just to make someone’s day. Love is how hard you work to get justice for family. Love is putting a blanket over someone who is sleeping so they don’t get cold. Love is the little things and the big things. Know when it’s time to let go. With a new marriage and a new baby, priorities sometimes need reset. During his years at the BAU, Derek has had many girlfriends or dates but he knew Savannah was the one. He realized that he was never going to have better and he wanted to be with her for the rest of his life. Commitments require sacrifices. Derek knew that it was time to say goodbye to the BAU in order to pursue a new career: a father and a husband. Our dreams don’t last forever but when one door closes, another is open and waiting for us. 28. What is this passage about? A. The author’s comments on the show Criminal Minds. B. The author’s comments on the character Derek Morgan. C. The author’s lessons she learned from the character Derek Morgan. D. The author’s thoughts about life. 29. What do we know from this passage? A. Criminal Minds may be a movie. B. Derek Morgan may be a policeman. C. Shemar Moore may be a woman. D. The author may be a writer. 30. Which of the following can NOT be the author’s choice? A. A strong man can show occasional weakness. B. To love someone is to make him or her happy as long as possible. C. It is acceptable not to take the boss’ mistaken order. D. A new marriage means an old one’s ending. 31. What made Derek leave the BAU? A. Many girls’ waiting for him. B. His commitments to work. C. To be a father and a husband. D. His sacrifices to his career. D Mark Twain once said, “There is no such thing as a new idea. It is impossible. We simply take a lot of old ideas and put them into a sort of mental kaleidoscope(万花筒). We give them a turn and they make new and curious combinations, but they are the same old pieces of colored glass that have been in use through all the ages.” As with most things, Twain was absolutely right. Even a lot of “modern technologies” are really just updated versions of older creations. Here is one example: Mobile phone. Mobile phones have been around for a lot longer than you would probably suspect. The first “true” mobile telephone call was made in 1946. Long before iPhones, a team at Bell Labs had already made a wireless phone service available in about 100 cities. Naturally, it was expensive, with a monthly service fee of $15. That’s about $150 by today’s standards, with an additional fee of 30–40 cents per call. And since the equipment weighed about 36 kilograms, the “mobile” function was mainly limited to automobiles. In addition to the price and weight, it was also a party line that could only handle about three calls at one time in one city. Due to its price and technological limitations, it was far from popular. But there was a slightly more viable(可行的) option in 1922. Although this device was labeled a “wireless telephone,” it was not what we could consider a mobile phone today. Nevertheless, it was a way to wirelessly connect with family members over great distances, and in the 1920s, that was quite an achievement. The device was a kind of one-way crystal radio that was used to listen to messages. It was large and required an umbrella to act as the antenna(天线). However, it didn’t need a power source since the antenna provided the energy. Old advertisements for the phone appealed to women who wanted to call their husbands wherever they were at the moment. Of course, that also meant hubby had to carry the clumsy radio and constantly listen for the phone call. Given all that, it’s not surprising this particular device never caught on. 32. What is the author’s intention by borrowing Mark Twain’s words in the first paragraph? A. To attract readers’ attention. B. To support his or her point of view. C. To introduce a ridiculous topic. D. To introduce a device: mobile phone. 33. What does the underlined word “hubby” in the last paragraph mean? A. Operator. B. Dog. C. Woman. D. Husband. 34. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true? A. Many phone calls could be handled at the same time by the “1946 wireless phone service”. B. People could easily carry the “1946 wireless phone” around. C. Family members could talk to each other on the “1922 wireless phone”. D. Neither the “1946 wireless phone” nor the “1922 wireless phone” became popular. 35. What is the theme of the passage? A. The history of mobile phones. B. New “modern technologies” resulting from “older ones”. C. Comparison between the 1946 and 1922 “wireless phone”. D. The invention of mobile phones. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 根据短文内容;从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Happy Friday! Anyone else excited for the weekend ahead? I've been thinking a lot about how to spend the weekend wisely. 36 . Make plans that don't circle around food or drinks. This is such a hard one for me because I love going out to dinner but there are tons of other things you can do with friends! Go to a museum, or check out a concert. If you're feeling really adventurous, sign up for a workout class with a friend! 37 Most people have a little more time to spend cooking on the weekends. Pick out a healthy recipe and give it a try! 38 Knowing what's in your food can help you make better choices. Get moving- even if you're working out. Sometimes when we workout, we think it's a free pass to sit on our butt for the rest of the day. 39 Take a walk around the neighborhood, do some window shopping , even just cleaning the house can be a good way to make it. Drink more water. I'm so good at drinking water during the week because I have a giant cup of water on my desk. But when it comes to the weekend, I tend to drink more coffee than water. Make sure you have a water bottle handy or grab a glass of water with your coffee mug. 40 Finally though, I think the most important thing is to take some time to relax and enjoy your weekend! A. But you should still find time for some movement. B. Staying watery is one of the easiest ways to do something nice for your body! C. Cook something new. D. So I thought I'd share my strategies for having a healthier weekend. E. Eat out. F. Cooking your own meals is almost always healthier than going out. G. Drinking coffee can make you energetic. 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分) 第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 It was the final week of the term, and as usual, I was stressed. I couldn’t 41 ; I was trying to concentrate, but my mind was full of 42 . I had problems sleeping and was 43 all the time. When my headache began, my mom 44 to take me to the hospital. We waited 45 in the waiting room. When my name was finally 46 , a pain in my chest was almost killing me. Then, a nurse took me to the 47 room. First my 48 was checked. The doctor seemed unhappy with what he found. His serious face made me even more anxious. He explained that my heartbeat was 49 , which caused the pain in my 50 just now. I was feeling as if the room lacked enough 51 . I was breathing with difficulty. The doctor was 52 of me having a heart disease. However, after some tests, he dismissed the 53 of it. He told me I was most likely having episodic acute stress. I didn’t even know what that 54 . He explained that it was my body’s 55 to my overwork. He 56 that I was pushing my body too hard. Stress became a threat to both my 57 and emotional health. The doctor put me on a(n) 58 program. I should avoid stress and relax. Now, I have learned not to 59 anymore. Life is 60 , and stress is just something we make up to make our lives tougher. 41. A. lie down B. calm down C. burn down D. break down 42. A. memories B. hope C. surprise D. worries 43. A. energetic B. tired C. excited D. amazed 44. A. decided B. managed C. tried D. pretended 45. A. slowly B. painfully C. anxiously D. happily 46. A. mentioned B. created C. written D. called 47. A. operation B. examination C. medicine D. rest 48. A. blood pressure B. heart rate C. body temperature D. pulse 49. A. irregular B. normal C. steady D. fast 50. A. back B. head C. leg D. chest 51. A. light B. warmth C. oxygen D. space 52. A. aware B. proud C. suspicious D. full 53. A. possibility B. ability C. chances D. content 54. A. showed B. expressed C. indicated D. meant 55. A. solution B. reaction C. access D. approach 56. A. commented B. doubted C. added D. replied 57. A. physical B. mental C. chemical D. medical 58. A. fitness B. recovery C. research D. education 59. A. complain B. wait C. doubt D. panic 60. A. colorful B. tough C. smooth D. sweet 第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分) 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 Today, the average US school is open for 180 days a year. In the early 19th century, they were open for as many as 260 days a year. People claimed that the average school year was too long for children, 61 were too immature and weak 62 (deal) with it. They assumed that education was stressful and 63 (negative) affected children’s bodies. Doctors even warned about the side effects of children going to school, 64 (claim) that it had undesirable influences 65 children’s health. Interestingly, schoolchildren of the time were not as hardworking as today, and many of them often 66 (skip) school. In fact, the average child didn’t go to school more than six 67 (month) a year. 68 the anti-schooling movement insisted that children be given longer breaks between school terms rather than the short breaks that they got four times a year. 69 (they) wishes were answered when schools became standardized and the school year 70 (shorten) in the 20th century. 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分) 第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加,删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。 修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词; 2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。 Dear Peter, Thank you your congratulating me on my winning the English speech competition. You say you were weak in spoken English. Here I will give you some advices on how to improve your oral English. First, I should practise speaking English as much as possible. And don’t afraid of making mistakes. Second, you ought to take a part in more English activities, such as the English Corner and the English Club, where many foreigners attend. Third, you are supposing to listen to some English radio programs, like BBC and VOA regular. Of course, keep English diaries can also help you a lot. Yours, Nancy 第二节 书面表达(满分25分) 最近“汉语热”在全球持续升温,越来越多的孔子学院在国外建立,请就此现象写一篇主题班会英语演讲稿,要点如下: 1.原因:中国的传统文化及悠久历史;中国的影响力 2.自己所能发挥的作用。 注意:1. 原因可适当发挥;2. 字数100字左右; 参考词汇:汉语热:Chinese craze 孔子学院:Confucius institute 2017年高二月考试卷 英语听力朗读材料、参考答案及评分标准 一、听力朗读材料 英语听力正式开始。请看听力部分第一节。 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例如现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。你将听到以下内容: M: Excuse me! Can you tell me how much the shirt is? W: Yes, it’s £9.15. 你将有5秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。衬衫的价格为9镑15便士,所以你选择C项,并将其标在试卷上。 现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。 (Text one) 1. W: What’s the reasonable tip to leave to the waitress? M: Up to you. I usually leave 20% of the dinner price. W: That seems fair. (Text two) 2. W: What shall we do today? M: I don’t feel like going out. The weather is so wet. W: Personally, I am planning to visit a clothes show, but I would love to stay with you. (Text three) 3. W: Did you hear what the weatherman said just now? M: Yes, he said the temperature would be slightly above freezing tomorrow. (Text four) 4. W: Excuse me, sir. Why hasn’t the 2:30 train arrived? It’s already 2:45. M: Sorry. It has been delayed because of an accident. The latest phone information says the train is arriving in another two hours. (Text five) 5. W: I’d like to meet the reporters. Where do you think I should meet them, at my office or at a restaurant or somewhere else? M: I think they prefer to see you where our products are made. W: OK. I’ll meet at the factory. 第一节 到此结束。 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7题两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。 (Text six) W: I need to make lunch, but before that I have to clean the house. It’s very dirty. You can help me. M: Why me? W: Because you helped make it dirty. M: What do you want me to do? W: Well, I’ll clean the kitchen and the living room. I want you to clean the bathroom. M: Oh, that’s easy. W: Clean the bath, mirror and the toilet. M: Oh, that’s a lot of work. W: Tell me when you finish. M: OK. 听下面一段对话,回答第8和第9题两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。 (Text seven) W: Oh, we still haven’t decided what to buy for David? M: I know. It’s hard. What does he need? W: Well, darling, the other day he said that he needed a car. M: Yeah, right. Well, I think that’s a little beyond us. W: Yeah, it’d be fun, but it’s just a little too expensive. M: There’s the usual kind of thing, like a wallet or a tie. W: Oh, not for his sixtieth. I think we should get him something unusual? M: Well, how about a computer? That way, we could keep in touch on e-mail. W: Yeah, that’s a good idea. 听下面一段对话,回答第10题至第12题三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 (Text eight) W: Good morning. You are so early. M: Yes, I know. I need to talk to you about my homework. W: Oh, your homework. It’s not a good time right now. I have to teach my morning class in a few minutes. M: How about later today? W: Let see, today’s Wednesday. On Wednesdays, I teach all morning. But I I have some free time between 12:00 and 1:00 today. How is that for you? M: Hmm, I’ve got a swimming class then. W: Oh, a swimming class? M: Yeah. I got three times a week. You know, down at the school pool. Do you ever go there? W: No, never. I’m usually too busy. M: Hmm… Well, I am free after 3 o’clock. Would that be a good time? W: Ah, three o’clock. I have a meeting from 3 until 5. M: Oh, well, could we meet at 6 o’clock? W: Yes, that’s fine. 听下面一段对话,回答第13至第16题四个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 (Text nine) W: Which dress should I wear to the party, honey? The white one or the blue one? M: Actually, the purple one suits you the best, I think. It looks great on you! W: Oh, really? You have a say. M: By the way, take more money on you just in case. W: No need at all. We will take AB treat tonight. M: What does that mean? W: You know men often drink more wine. M: I see. The diners pay according to sex. W: You guessed it. Usually men pay 60% or 70 %. But tonight according to the organizer, ladies only need to pay 20%. Therefore, AB treat is popular with young people. M: Sounds reasonable. 听下面一段对话,回答第17至第20题四个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 (Text ten) The Edinburgh International Book Festival is one of the best public celebrations of books in the world. The first Book Festival took place in a tent in Edinburgh in 1983. At first, it was held every two years. In 1997, it began to be held every year. It is now a large and growing an international event. Perhaps, as a result of this, Edinburgh was named the first UNESCO City of Literature in 2004. The Book Festival runs in the last three weeks of August every year in Edinburgh. The Festival’s home is the beautiful Charlotte Square Gardens centrally located in Edinburgh’s historical new town, which is a little way from Princess Street. It’s a wonderful space in which to sit, think, play and be entertained. You can enjoy a relaxing atmosphere---see a favorite author, join in a workshop or debate, enjoy a glass of wine or beer, or simply park yourself on the grass. There are over 700 events for both adults and children in the three weeks that the festival runs. They range from writing workshops, education events, discussions, to talks and performances by international writers, poets, musicians and thinkers. 第二节到此结束。现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 二、参考答案 1-5 BABAC 6-10CABAB 11-15ABCCC 16-20 BBACA 21-23 CCA 24-27 ABDB 28-31 CBDC 32-35 BDDB 36-40DCFAB 41-45 BDBAC 46-50DBBAD 51-55 CCADB 56-60CABDB 61. who 62. to deal 63. negatively 64. claiming 65. on 66. skipped 67. months 68. But 69. Their 70.was shortened Dear Peter, Thank you∧ your congratulating me on my wining the English speech competition. You say you for were weak in spoken English. Here I will give you some advices on how to improve your oral are advice you English. First, I should practise speaking English as much as possible. And don’t ∧afraid of be making mistakes. Second, you ought to take a part in English activities, such as the English Corner and the English Club, where many foreigners attend. Third, you are supposing to listen to which supposed some English radio programs, like BBC and VOA regular. Of course, keep English diaries regularly keeping can also help you a lot. Yours, Nancy 参考范文: Good morning, everyone! The topic of my speech is “Chinese craze”. “Chinese craze” has been spreading across the world in recent years. More and more Confucius institutes have been set up at abroad .Why has Chinese become so popular? I think there are three reasons for it. Firstly, China is a country with a long history and deep traditional culture, which has made the Chinese language richer and more attractive. Secondly, China’s economy has been developing very quickly in recent years. Most importantly, China is becoming increasingly active in international affairs. However, many students ignore the importance of their mother tongue: grammatical mistakes constantly occur in their articles, handwritings are poor and so on. As a Chinese, I think it’s our duty to learn and master our mother language. Thank you for your listening. 三、书面表达评分标准 一、评分原则 1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。 2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。 3.词数少于 80和多于 120的,从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档次:(21-25分)完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ------覆盖所有内容要点。 -----应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 -----语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。 -- ---有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档(16-20分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 -----虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。 ------应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ------语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 ------应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档:(11-15) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ------虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。 ------应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ------有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。 ------应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。 整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档:(6—10分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 ------漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。 ------语法结构单调,词汇知识有限。 ------有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。 ------较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档:(1-5分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 ------明显遗漏主要内容,写一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。 ------语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 ------较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。 ------缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息;内容太少、无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 查看更多