福建省宁德市2019-2020学年高一上学期期末考试英语试题

福建省宁德市2019-2020学年高一上学期期末考试英语试题

宁德市2019–2020学年度第一学期期末高一质量检测 英 语 试 题 ‎（考试时间：120分钟 满分150分）‎ 注意：请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。‎ 第一部分 听力（共两节，共30分）‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎ 1. What are the speakers doing now?‎ A. Having a walk. B. Visiting a friend. C. Choosing a gift.‎ ‎ 2. Where does the conversation probably take place?‎ A. In a post office. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.‎ ‎ 3. Why are the speakers going to the library?‎ A. To find a partner. B. To meet Mr. Smith. C. To work on a project.‎ ‎ 4. How many eggs does the woman need today?‎ A. Ten. B. Twenty. C. Forty.‎ ‎ 5. What does the woman do?‎ A. A tour guide. B. A waitress. C. A student.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，共22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7两个小题。‎ ‎6. What will the woman do for Bob’s birthday? ‎ A. Clean his room. B. Organize a party. C. Prepare a big dinner.‎ ‎7. What does the woman ask the man to bring?‎ A. Some drinks. B. A cake. C. Some cookies.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8、9两个小题。‎ ‎8. Where are the speakers now? ‎ A. In their school. B. Near a hotel. C. In the lake.‎ ‎9. What are the boys doing?‎ A. Playing basketball. B. Riding a boat. C. Taking pictures.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12三个小题。‎ ‎10. What job is the woman asking for?‎ A. A job as a teacher. B. A job as a secretary. C. A job as a programmer.‎ ‎11. Which foreign language can the woman speak very well?‎ A. English. B. Japanese. C. French.‎ ‎12. What other skills does the woman have?‎ A. Driving. B. Using computers. C. Typing and driving.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16四个小题。‎ ‎13. What does the club try to help children with?‎ A. Sports. B. Paintings. C. Reading and writing.‎ ‎14. What will the children get this month?‎ A. A video. B. A pen. C. A magazine.‎ ‎15. When will the competition be held?‎ A. This week. B. Next week. C. Next month.‎ ‎16. How much does it cost a year?‎ A. £3. B. £ 5. C. £12.‎ 听下面一段独白，回答第17至20四个小题。‎ ‎17. What does June’s group help teach her?‎ A. The value of having friends.‎ B. The value of helping others.‎ C. The value of believing in herself.‎ ‎18. Why does Joy run away to China?‎ A. To find her mother. B. To find her father. C. To find her teacher.‎ ‎19. What stories does For the Children’s Hour include?‎ A. Stories about nature. B. Stories about shoes. C. Stories about dreams.‎ ‎20. Who wrote the book Fifty Famous Stories Retold?‎ A. James Baldwin. 　　 B. Robin Hood. C. Julius Caesar.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解 （共两节；共30分）‎ 第一节 (共10小题；每小题2分，共20分)‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。‎ A Once upon a time there lived a wise king who wanted to marry off his favorite daughter. He wondered how he could find the right person. The king had an idea. He ‎ decided to hold a competition to decide which gentleman would win this great honor. The king announced that anyone who wanted to marry the princess must report to the palace. To win his daughter, a man must fill up a whole room with a light thing very quickly.‎ The first brave competitor arrived at the palace. His name was Peter. He brought bags full of feathers. With great confidence, he started to fill the large room with feathers, but time ran out and he failed.‎ The next day, another young man whose name was Bob tried to quickly fill the room, this time with beautiful silk. Time ran out again, and he left the palace disappointed.‎ The competition went on day after day. Hundreds of competitors hoped to pass the test but no one succeeded. The king began to feel hopeless. Wasn’t anyone in the kingdom qualified to marry the beautiful princess?‎ One day, a young man called Mike arrived at the palace empty-handed. The king wondered how this man planned to win the competition. Entering the room, the young man put out the lights. He reached into his pocket, got a small candle and lit it. In no time, the light filled the whole room.‎ The king was very happy because he had found the perfect match for his lovely daughter.‎ ‎21. Why did the king hold the competition?‎ A. To win his daughter.‎ B. To find a smart official.‎ C. To marry off his daughter.‎ D. To choose a new wise king after him.‎ ‎22. What does the underlined word “qualified” in Paragraph 4 probably mean?‎ A. Willing.        B. Suitable.          C. Clever.           D. Honest.‎ ‎23. Who won the competition at last?‎ ‎（背面还有试题）‎ A. Peter.           B. Bob.              C. Mike.            D. Nobody.‎ B If you are home-alone, or live alone, and somebody comes to the door, shout out “I got it” so that it seems like someone else is there with you and you are not alone. But actually before that, there are lots of preventive(预防的) actions to take.‎ Give your apartment a safety check It’s a good idea to give your apartment a once-over for safety concerns—ideally before you even move in. Complete this safety checklist.‎ · Can any of your valuables be seen from the street? ‎ · Can you see who’s at the door without opening it? ‎ · Do you have all your mail held at the post office when you travel? ‎ · Have all the locks of your doors been changed since you moved in? ‎ Become friends with your neighbors If you’re shy, then you’d probably prefer anything else to chatting with neighbors. But make an effort to be friendly. In one way or another, your neighbors will be more willing to lend a hand to a friend than they are to help out a stranger in times of trouble.‎ Be smart about spare keys Thieves and other illegal types know exactly where to check for spare keys. ‎ So don’t think you’re being clever by hiding them in the mailbox, or underneath a ‎ carpet. Instead, you had better leave them to a friend or trusted neighbor. ‎ Always lock the door Lock your doors, every single time. Even if you’re just going to the garbage dumpster(垃圾大铁桶) quickly, or only stepping inside to catch something you forgot. ‎ It may seem like overkill — especially if you live in a relatively safe district. But it only takes that one moment for someone to steal in.‎ 24. Why does the author advise you to shout “I got it” in Paragraph 1?‎ A. To protect yourself. B. To answer the door.‎ C. To call out loudly. D. To welcome the guests.‎ ‎25. What is the author’s opinion about spare keys?‎ A. Hide spare keys in the mailbox. ‎ B. Take all the keys with you if possible. ‎ C. Leave the keys to someone you trusted.‎ D. Have your keys ready as you leave.‎ ‎26. What are the right preventive actions?‎ ‎ ① Never change the locks. ‎ ‎ ② Close the door in time.‎ ‎ ③ Make friends with neighbors. ‎ ‎ ④ Put spare keys under the carpet.‎ ‎⑤ Keep valuables seen from the street. ‎ ‎ ⑥ Have a safety check about the apartment.‎ ‎ A. ①②④ B. ②③⑤ C.③④⑥ D. ②③⑥‎ C George Washington Carver had a goal. This was to help southern farmers who needed good crops. They needed crops that didn’t hurt the soil. Carver went to Simpson College in Iowa, in which he studied for three years. Then he went to Iowa State, where he got two degrees. The college knew he was smart and wanted him to stay. So he joined the team. He was put in charge of ‎ a huge greenhouse. There he grew over 20,000 kinds of fungi（真菌），which made him famous.‎ Carver had many job offers. Thomas Edison offered $‎175,000 a year. Henry Ford tried to hire him too. Joseph Stalin invited him to the Soviet Union to help with cotton. But Carver refused all offers. Instead, he took a job at Tuskegee Institute. This was a school for African Americans. Carver was paid only $‎1,000 a year. But he was happy because he had goals to reach and he knew he could reach them at Tuskegee.‎ Carver worked at Tuskegee for 47 years. He never asked for a raise in pay. And he never received one. He worked so hard that he died in his office chair on January 4, 1943.‎ Carver came up with over 300 products from peanuts （花生）, all of which could have been patented (申请专利). He could have made millions. But he did not want to. Here is what he said, “Mr. Creator did not charge to grow the peanut. I cannot accept money for my work with it.”‎ Through his efforts, Carver set up a fund, for he wanted research to continue. He gave his life’s savings to it, which came to $40,000. One honor came after his death. His birthplace was made a national shrine (圣地). How surprised the modest Carver could have been! ‎ 27. One job offer which Carver accepted was to work for ______.‎ A. Thomas Edison B. Henry Ford ‎ C. Joseph Stalin D. Tuskegee Institute 28. How much did Carver offer to the fund？‎ A. ‎$1,000. B. $20,000. C. $40,000. D. $175,000.‎ 29. Which of the following best describes Carver?‎ A. Selfless. B. Stubborn. C. Stupid. D. Reliable.‎ 30. What’s the main idea of the text? ‎ A. Carver preferred work to money.‎ B. Carver devoted his whole life to achieving his goals. ‎ C. Carver refused many job offers that would make him rich.‎ D. Some scientists would rather do good than make much money.‎ 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）‎ ‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两项为多余选项。‎ Sometimes, you do not finish drinking your glass of water before you go to bed. 31 But have you ever wondered if it is still safe to drink?‎ ‎“If you have clean water in a clean glass, you’re fine to drink it for a day or two,” Kellogg Schwab from the Johns Hopkins University Water Institute in the US told Time.‎ ‎ 32 That’s because after about 12 hours, the carbon dioxide (二氧化碳) in the air reacts（反应）with the water in your glass, slightly lowering its pH level.‎ Also, there might be more microorganisms (微生物) in your water if you leave it out overnight. Microorganisms grow more quickly at room temperature. These microorganisms can stay on your glass. 33 But as long as you clean your glasses very often, this will not be a ‎ problem.‎ In countries like the US and UK, people often drink water directly from the tap (水龙头). 34 Most experts say that tap water has a shelf life of six months, according to Zane Satterfield from West Virginia University, US. After six months, there is less chlorine (氯) in the water and bacteria (细菌) start to grow. You’d better not drink the water otherwise you may get sick.‎ ‎ 35 Schwab said people should be careful with them. If you leave a bottle of water under the sun or in a car for a long period of time, the plastic produces a chemical called BPA. This chemical can cause heart disease and cancer.  ‎ A. What about plastic water bottles? ‎ B. They can make you get sick more easily.‎ C. Is it safe for you to drink the water later?‎ D. But you may find that it tastes strange. ‎ E. Some people prefer to drink water from rivers.‎ F. You might want to drink it the next morning. ‎ G. This is OK—however, tap water cannot be stored for a long time.‎ 第三部分 ‎ 英语知识运用 （共三节，共55分）‎ 第一节 完形填空 (共18小题；每小题1.5分，共27分) ‎ 阅读下面短文，从A、B、C和D四个选项中， 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ When you’re leaving for an international trip, a passport is the single most important thing to double-check. Remembering to 36 it with you is very important. It’s also important for you to 37 about your passport. After all, it’s your one 38 to get out of the country—and get back in. Passports are powerful, 39 not all are equal.‎ Depending on what passport you 40 , you’ll need a visa（签证）to enter different countries. For example, a U.S. passport is all you need to 41 Peru（秘鲁）. If you decide to 42 to Brazil while you’re there, you’ll need to apply for（申请）a 43 . But a Peruvian passport would let you 44 the border（国界）into Brazil without a visa.‎ Naturally, some passports will get you into more 45 visa-free than others. The organization Arton Capital listed every country’s passport from most 46 least powerful, based on how many countries it would give access（进入权）to without a visa. Nowadays, the United Arab Emirates is recognized as the most 47 passport in the world. It gets their 48 into 177 countries without a visa. In the 49 place are Finland, Luxembourg, and Spain which all give access to 169 countries. The United States, which has 168 visa-free countries on its 50 , doesn’t come in until the third group.‎ Count yourself 51 if you don’t rely on an Afghanistan passport 52 is the least powerful, only letting their people into 34 countries without a visa. ‎ Visa or not, make sure you 53 these airport mistakes that could ruin your vacation.‎ ‎36.‎ A. take B. offer C. produce D. hang ‎37.‎ A. talk B. know C. ask D. think ‎38.‎ A. reason B. chance C. road D. ticket ‎39.‎ A. and B. or C. so D. but ‎40.‎ A. show B. give C. have D. check ‎41.‎ A. give up B. get into C. join in D. care about ‎42.‎ A. go B. lead C. turn D. refer ‎43.‎ A. book ‎ B. visa C. note D. passport ‎44.‎ A. reach B. close C. guard D. cross ‎45.‎ A. cities B. fields C. countries D. rooms ‎46.‎ A. between B. for C. with D. to ‎47.‎ A. powerful B. necessary C. frequent D. interesting ‎48.‎ A. designers B. producers C. owners D. workers ‎49.‎ A. first B. second C. third D. last ‎50.‎ A. survey B. route C. outline D. list ‎51.‎ A. sad B. safe C. lucky D. foolish ‎52.‎ A. who B. that C. when D. where ‎53.‎ A. avoid B. make C. face D. admit 第二节 完成句子（共13个空；每空1分，共13分）‎ ‎54.The letters P.R.C. _______ _______ (代表) the People’s Republic of China.‎ ‎55. They do not _______ _______(丧失信心) even if they have failed several times.‎ ‎56. This habit is hard to form _______ _______(目前), but in the long run, it will do you good.‎ ‎57. _______ _______ _______ （结果），he defeated all the competitors and won the game. ‎ ‎58. Li Hua always ______ _______ (梦想) becoming a great scientist like Tu Youyou. ‎ ‎59. It’s known to all that Diaoyu Islands _______ _______(属于) China.‎ 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）‎ ‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Dinosaurs died out because of 60 unexpected incident. But wildlife today disappears or is 61 danger just because humans do harm to it. For example, tigers 62 (hunt) for fur to make carpets so that they can only live in secure reserves; grassland is destroyed without mercy so that dust storms come into being, 63 affect distant cities.‎ Last year, scientists 64 (see) some monkeys rubbing themselves with a certain kind of insects to protect themselves from fierce 65 (mosquito). According to the result of the ‎ inspection, they found that the insect contains a 66 (use) drug, so local farmers were employed to catch the insects. The ending was that the insects disappeared 67 (gradual) from the whole zone. ‎ We should appreciate the natural balance and pay more attention to the 68 (important) of wildlife protection. Not until we succeed in 69 (make) wildlife live in peace can we smile in relief. ‎ ‎（背面还有试题）‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节， 满分35分）‎ 第一节 概要写作（满分10分）‎ 阅读短文，根据其内容写一篇60词左右的内容概要。‎ Most Americans take pride in inviting guests with open arms. What should you do if an American friend has invited you to visit his family? You've never been to an American home before, and you're not sure what to do. Should you take a gift? What time should you arrive or leave? How long should you stay? Take it easy. I’ll tell you all about it.‎ The question of whether or not to bring a gift often worries guests. Giving your host a gift is not just a social custom in some cultures—it's expected. But in American culture, a guest does not have to bring a gift. Of course, some people do bring a small gift for their host. Proper gifts might usually be flowers, candy or—if the family has small children—toys. If you choose not to bring a gift, don't worry. No one will even notice.‎ Plan to arrive on time, or call to tell your host that you will be late. When you've finished the meal, the host may invite everyone to move to the living room for dessert with tea or coffee. After an hour or so, it's about time to head for the door.‎ Americans usually like to invite guests ahead of time. Only very close friends visit the host unexpectedly without being invited. This is especially true if the guests want to stay for a few days. Here's one golden rule for house guests: short stays are best. Even relatives don’t usually stay for several weeks at a time. Your host family will appreciate our consideration (体贴), and they may even invite you back!‎ ‎__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎第二节 应用文写作（满分25分）‎ 假定你是宁德市新华中学的学生李华，本周六你班同学打算举行一次登山活动。请用英文给外教David写一封信，邀请他参加此次活动。具体内容如下：‎ ‎1. 集合时间与地点：8:00, 校门口；‎ ‎2. 携带物品：食物、水、相机等；‎ ‎3. 返回时间：下午两点；‎ ‎4. 登山的益处：……。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 词数100左右；‎ ‎2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ Dear David,‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎ Yours, ‎ Li Hua 宁德市2018–2019学年度第一学期期末高一质量检测 英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第一卷 （选择题 共107分）‎ 第一部分 听力（共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分；与参考答案不符的不得分）‎ ‎1-5ACBBA 6-10 ACBCB 11-15CCBCA 16-20BCABA ‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分, 满分40分；与参考答案不符的不得分）‎ ‎21-25 BCADC 26-30CABCD 31-35DDBCC 36-40BGFDA ‎ 第三部分 英语知识运用 第一节 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分, 满分10分；与参考答案不符的不得分）‎ ‎41-45ACBCA 46-50 BAACB ‎ 第二节 完形填空（共18小题；每小题1.5分, 满分27分；与参考答案不符的不得分）‎ ‎51-55 DBCAC 56-60 ABDBA 61-65 BCADD 66-68BCD 第二卷 （非选择题满分43分）‎ 第一节 完成句子（共13个空；每空1分, 满分13分；与参考答案不符的不得分，大小写错误不得分, 没有将完整的单词写在答题卡上不得分。）‎ ‎69. take apart / break up（可以给分） 70. dying out 71. To be honest/ frank ‎ ‎72. came into being/ existence 73.change his mind.‎ 第二节语法填空（共10个空；每空1分, 满分10分；与参考答案不符的不得分 。）‎ ‎74. on 75. a 76. them 77. importance 78. have begun ‎ ‎79. harder 80. which 81. to explore 82. rapidly 83. resources ‎ 第四节 书面表达（ 满分20分）‎ 一、评分原则 ‎1. 本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。‎ ‎2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，‎ ‎ 确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3. 词数少于80从总分中减去2分，多写不扣分。‎ ‎4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文 ‎ 的连贯性。‎ ‎5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。‎ 英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。‎ 6. 如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。‎ 二、内容要点 ‎1. 个人观点 ‎2. 举例说明 三、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ 覆盖所有内容要点。‎ 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。‎ 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。‎ 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎17~20分 第四档 完成了试题规定的任务。‎ 虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。‎ 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。‎ 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。‎ ‎13~16分 第三档 基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。‎ 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。‎ 有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。‎ 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ ‎9~12分 第二档 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。‎ 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。‎ 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。‎ 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ ‎5~8分 第一档 未完成试题规定的任务。‎ 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。‎ 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。‎ 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。‎ 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。‎ ‎1~4分 ‎0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；‎ 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。‎ 四、参考范文 In recent years, mobile payment has made its way into people’s life. It is supported by two major companies Wechat and Alipay. Thanks to their services, we can buy products without wallets. All we need are a cellphone and QR codes . ‎ In my opinion, most users prefer mobile payment, for it saves us the time of dealing with change, especially the coins. Besides, it also keeps record of our financial report automatically, allowing us to know where our money is going. The popularity of mobile payment, however, comes with a price. So much do we depend on cellphones that sometimes we find ourselves trapped in occasions when they fail to work, running out of battery or out of service.‎ As the saying goes, "there is no rose without a thorn." Mobile payment, with advantages outweighing disadvantages, is making a difference in a revolutionary way.‎ 五、书面表达评分细则 ‎ ‎1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。‎ ‎2、书面表达共7个内容要点，每个内容要点2分，共14分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）6分，合计20分。漏掉一个要点扣2分。‎ ‎3、没使用连接词、较高级词汇、较复杂结构，内容齐全，无错误，但没文采，最高只能评18分。‎ ‎4、出现两三个小错误，使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分(18分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。‎ ‎5、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。‎ ‎6、写出一个要点给2分。‎ ‎7、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（11—13分）。要点齐全，错误很多，但不影响理解，可评（8—10分）。‎ ‎8、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。错2—3个扣1分，5个以上扣2分。‎ ‎9、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。‎ ‎10、要点认定：‎ ‎ 考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主词），酌情扣分（扣0.5或1分）。　‎ ‎11、在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3—4个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。‎