【英语】四川省泸县四中2019-2020学年高一下学期期末模拟考试试题

【英语】四川省泸县四中2019-2020学年高一下学期期末模拟考试试题

四川省泸县四中2019-2020学年高一下学期期末模拟考试 英语试题 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1.Why was Alicia late this time?‎ A. She missed the bus. B. Her grandma was sick. C. The bus was in an accident.‎ ‎2.Where are the speakers?‎ A. At a bag store. B. In a restaurant. C. At a hotel.‎ ‎3.How does the woman feel about the shoes?‎ A. They’re a bit small. B. They’re too expensive. C. She doesn’t like the color.‎ ‎4.What is the relationship between the two speakers?‎ A. Husband and wife. B. Teacher and students. C. Doctor and patient.‎ ‎5.What was the woman probably trying to get?‎ A. A ticket for a movie. B. A part in a play. C. A job as a model.‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6.Why is Mary upset?‎ A. She failed the test.‎ B. She didn’t study hard.‎ C. Jay did better than her in the test.‎ ‎7.What score did Jay get in the test?‎ A. 49%. B. 70%. C. 79%.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。‎ ‎8.Why is Alice called Little Miss Sunshine?‎ A. She is helpful. B. She is outgoing. C. She sings very well.‎ ‎9.Who is the youngest in the class?‎ A. Jane. B. Bob. C. Jim.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10.What did the woman dream about?‎ A. She lost 100 dollars. B. She found 100 dollars. C. She earned 100 dollars.‎ ‎11.What does the man think of the woman’s dream?‎ A. Realistic. B. Ridiculous. C. Magical.‎ ‎12.What will the woman do with the money?‎ A. Invite the man to have a big meal. ‎ B. Buy some clothes for herself.‎ C. Try to return it to the owner.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13.Which team has played in every World Cup?‎ A. Brazil. B. Portugal. C. South Africa.‎ ‎14.What is the trophy(奖杯) named after?‎ A. A famous place. B. A special stadium. C. The organizer.‎ ‎15.How many cities was the 2018 World Cup held in?‎ A. 32. B. 15. C. 11.‎ ‎16.Why does the speaker say Japan made history?‎ A. They won the champion once. ‎ B. They beat a South American team.‎ C. They made their fourth appearance.‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17.What’s Brett just doing?‎ A. Downloading e-books. B. Reading an e-book. C. Buying an e-book reader.‎ ‎18.What advantage of the e-book reader does Brett mention?‎ A. The large storage capacity. ‎ B. The low cost in the long term.‎ C. The decrease in the use of paper.‎ ‎19.Why does Fiona refuse to buy an e-book reader?‎ A. She doesn’t read much. ‎ B. She likes printed books better. ‎ C. She has enough books to read.‎ ‎20.Where does the conversation take place?‎ A. In a store. B. In a classroom. C. In a library.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。‎ A A couple from Miami, Bill and Simone Butler, spent sixty-six days in a life raft (救生艇)in the seas of Central America after their boat sank.‎ Twenty-one days after they left Panama in their boat, in Simony, they met some whales (鲸).“ They started to hit the side of the boat,” said Bill,“ and then suddenly we heard water. ” Two minutes later, the boat was sinking. They jumped into the life raft and watched the boat go under the water.‎ For twenty days they had tins of food, biscuits, and bottles of water. They also had a fishing line and a machine to make salt water into drinking water—two things which saved their lives. They caught eight to ten fish a day and ate them raw(生的).Then the line broke. “So we had no more fish until something very strange happened. Some sharks(鲨鱼) came to feed, and the fish under the raft were afraid and came to the surface. I caught them with my hands.”‎ About twenty ships passed them, but no one saw them. After fifty days at sea their life raft was beginning to break up. Then suddenly it was all over. A fishing boat saw them and picked them up. They couldn’t stand up. So the captain carried them onto his boat and took them to Costa Rica. Their two months at sea was over.‎ ‎21.Bill and Simone were traveling _______ when they met some whales.‎ A. in a lake B. in a river C. in a sea D. in a desert ‎22.After their boat sank, the couple _______.‎ A. jumped into the sea B. heard water C. watched the boat sail away D. stayed in the life raft ‎23.When the fishing boat picked them up, _______ .‎ A. they stood up as quickly as possible B. they climbed onto the boat easily C. their life raft was in good condition D. their two months at sea was over B The four theme parks below offer the most thrilling(刺激的)rides and attractions in the world.‎ Busch Gardens Williamsburg Located(坐落)in Virginia, USA, this theme paprk has some of the highest-rated thrill rides in the world. The park’s famous roller coasters include Apollo’s Chariot, Alpengeist, Griffon, the Loch Ness Monster and Verbolten. The park also has thrilling water rides, rides for kids, other rides, shows, tours, animal exhibits and more. Divided into nine areas representing European countries, the park has won an award for the quality of its food.‎ Everland One of the world’s most popular theme parks, Everland is located in Yongin, Gyeonggi-do province, South Korea. The park has 40 thrill rides, including a world-famous wooden roller coaster, and many other attractions such as an hunting ride, a zoo, indoor and outdoor water parks, shows and more.‎ Blackpool Pleasure Beach This Lancashire amusement park is one of the most visited theme parks in the United Kingdom. Among the park’s 125 rides and attractions are the tallest and faster roller coaster in the ‎ U. K., a classic wooden roller coaster, a steel tower ride, the biggest indoor dark ride in the world, a host of rides for kids and more.‎ PortAventura World Located on Spain’s Costa Daurada, this park is divided into six themed areas. Five areas represent different locations including Polynesia, Mexico, the American West, China and the Mediterrancan. The sixth and newest area has a Sesame Street theme. The park has many rides and attractions suitable for visitors of all ages.‎ ‎24.What did Busch Gardens win an award for?‎ A. The highest thrill rides B. Good quality of its food C. A Sesame Street theme area D. A host of thrilling water rides ‎25.What will a visitor loving thrill and hunting rides probably choose?‎ A. Busch Gardens Williamsburg B. Everland C. Blackpool Pleasure Beach D. PortAventura World ‎26.What is unique to Blackpool Pleasure Beach?‎ A. It has a classic wooden roller coaster B. It has the fastest roller coaster in the world C. It has the biggest indoor dark ride in the world D. It has attractions suitable for visitors of all ages ‎27.Where is the theme park including a China area located in?‎ A. Virginia B. Yongin C. Lancashire D. Costa Daurada C Music is not just a set of sounds and rhythms. Its influence on the brain is much deeper than any other human experience. Keep on reading to know all those amazing powers of music.‎ A recent study suggests that preterm (早产的) babies appear to experience less pain and feed more when listening to music. Experts led by Dr. Manoj Kumar of the University of Alberta, Canada, found that music had a beneficial effect on reducing pain for preterm babies experiencing painful medical tests. It also appeared to benefit full-term babies during operations.‎ Many people experiencing brain damage have speech and movement-related problems. Music can help recover from brain injuries. As a different and effective treatment, doctors often advise such patients to listen to good music to improve the parts of the brain responsible for these two functions. When people with neurological (神经的) disorders hear a musical beat, it helps them to regain a balanced walk.‎ Though music cannot make deafness disappear, it really can stave off the loss of hearing. There was an experiment involving 163 people where 74 were musicians. Participants were asked to pass some listening tests. Musicians heard the sounds better than non-musicians, and this difference gets clearer with age. This means that a 70-year-old musician hears better than a 50-year-old non-musician, even in a noisy environment.‎ Besides, music mends a broken heart. It is not about a thrown-away love, but about a heart ‎ attack. The matter is that music can help people recover from a heart attack or heart operation by reducing blood pressure, slowing down the heartbeat rate, and reducing anxiety. Listening to the quality music produces positive emotions, improves the movement of blood, and expands blood vessels, thus, promoting quick recovery of the whole cardiovascular (心血管的) system.‎ ‎28.How does music affect preterm babies?‎ A. It helps reduce their pain. B. It helps develop their potential in music.‎ C. It helps improve their hearing systems. D. It helps repair their neurological systems.‎ ‎29.What does the underlined phrase “stave off” in Paragraph 4 mean?‎ A. Lead to B. Increase C. Prevent D. Break into ‎30.Why can music mend a broken heart?‎ A. It has a positive effect on human body systems’ work.‎ B. It can help people prevent diseases caused by anxiety.‎ C. It helps make a person feel optimistic about life.‎ D. It can help patients recover in a slow way.‎ ‎31.What may be the best title for the text?‎ A. Who can benefit from music B. The best time to listen to music C. The way to choose quality music D. How music affects our mind and body D Next time you raise an eyebrow at the views of your partner, friend, sibling （兄弟姐妹） or colleague, remember they could be helping to make you smarter. New research shows that intelligence is not fixed but can be improved throughout adulthood by family members, bright mates and intellectually challenging careers. The study challenges the commonly held belief that intelligence is fixed by the age of about 18.‎ Scientific consensus suggests that intelligence is controlled by genes, with environmental factors such as schooling and nutrition playing a partial role up to this age. After this point, IQ scores become steady（稳定的）. But James Flynn, professor of political studies and psychology at the University of Otago in New Zealand, argues that people can "upgrade" their own intelligence throughout their lives. He believes intellectual stimulation（刺激）from others is important as the "brain seems to be rather like a muscle - the more you use it, the stronger it gets". However, the opposite is also true - so people sharing a home or workplace with those who are intellectually challenged risk seeing their IQ levels nosedive as a result.‎ Professor Flynn analyzed US intelligence tests from the last 65 years and created new IQ "age tables". He found a bright ten-year-old with brothers and sisters of average intelligence will suffer a five to ten point IQ disadvantage compared to a similar child with equally bright brothers and sisters and special educational treatment to help pull them up.‎ Professor Flynn also concluded that although genetics and early life experiences determine about 80% of intelligence, the remaining 20% is linked to lifestyle. This means that people can raise their IQ, or allow it to fall, by ten points or more. He suggested the best way to improve IQ ‎ levels is to mix with bright friends, find an intellectually challenging job and marry someone cleverer.‎ ‎32.According to the text, it is commonly believed that ______ .‎ A. people’ s IQ level falls as they age B. it is wise to share family members’ views C. people cannot improve their intelligence during adulthood D. doing something challenging is good for one’s intelligence ‎33.The underlined word "nosedive" in paragraph 2 probably means ______ .‎ A. vary B. develop C. change D. fall ‎34.Which of the following can help improve one’s intelligence according to Professor Flynn？ ______‎ A. Making many friends. B. Staying with smart people.‎ C. Doing exercise every day. D. Learning from brothers or sisters ‎35.The purpose of the text is to ______ .‎ A. inform B. advertise C. entertain D. persuade 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ CUCAS, known as China’s University and College Admission System, is an official online suitable for international students applying to China’s universities.‎ ‎36. By using its service, including university application, accommodation（住宿） booking, airport pick-up and money transfer, you will be able to easily apply for top universities in China and find the most suitable programs.‎ At present, nearly 200 Chinese public universities and 10 language schools are making use of CUCAS’s online admission system. 37. We suggest that you consider the following aspects:‎ ‎★ 38.‎ Do you have a favorite Chinese city or university? If there is, why not apply for it now? If you’re not very familiar with China’s cities, take a look at our City Guide.‎ ‎★ Budget In comparison to Beijing, Shanghai, and large coastal cities, the cost of living in China’s inland regions is relatively low. For example, Chengdu, Xi’an,Chongqing, Changsha, Wuhan, Zhengzhou, and other cities are all well-developed with beautiful scenery and many excellent universities. If you don’t have a large budget, you may wish to consider these cities.‎ ‎★ Rank ‎39. Or you can also refer to the list of "Project 985" universities and the list of "Project 211" universities. They are regarded as China’s top universities.‎ ‎★ Fellow citizens Applicants may choose to apply to a university where you have more fellow citizens. This may help you settle in more quickly to a new environment.40. This may reduce the opportunities for you to speak your own language and in turn improve your Chinese fluency.‎ A. Your Preference.‎ B. How do you choose your ideal（完美的）university?‎ C. You can check the annual ranking of all the universities in China.‎ D. What can you do to figure out the suitable programs?‎ E. Or you can do the opposite.‎ F. It is always intended to provide top service for Chinese University appliers.‎ G. Your Familiarity.‎ 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 （共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ For much of the earliest history of our species, home may have been nothing more than a small fire and the light it cast on a few familiar faces. But whatever else ___41__ is and however it entered our consciousness – it’s a way of organizing __42__ in our minds. Home is home, and everything else is not-home.‎ Not that you can’t feel “at home” in ____43__ places. But there’s a big psychological ___44___ between feeling at home and being home. Feeling at home in other places is simply a way of saying that the not-home-ness of those places has ___45__ since you first arrived. Some people, as they __46__ through their lives, rediscover home again and again. Some people never find another after once __47___ home. And, of course, some people ___48__ leave the only home they’ve always known.‎ Homesick children know how ___49___ the boundary between home and not-home can be be-cause they ____50__ the difference. I know the __51__ because I was one of them. I felt a strong connection between people ___52__ in the small town I grew up in. But spending the __53___ away from home, such as sleeping at my friend’s houses, made everything seem alien. And yet when I got back home in the morning, home was as usual. That was the __54___ --home is a place so ___55__ that you don’t even have to notice it.‎ And there’s something more. ___56___ my father died, my brothers and sisters and I went back to his ___57___, where he’d lived alone. It wasn’t only his ___58___ we felt. It was as though something had ___59___ from every object in the house. They had, in fact, become ___60__ objects. The person whose heart and mind could combine them into a single thing – a home—had gone.‎ ‎41.A. history B. home C. fire D. light ‎42.A. space B. time C. work D. concept ‎43.A. enough B. all C. such D. other ‎44.A. connection B. balance C. relationship D. difference ‎45.A. changed B. remained C. reduced D. increased ‎46.A. move B. develop C. search D. choose ‎47.A. returning B. leaving C. finding D. forgetting ‎48.A. also B. again C. never D. ever ‎49.A. limited B. close C. sharp D. common ‎50.A. learn from B. suffer from C. think about D. speak about ‎51.A. feeling B. illness C. impression D. sense ‎52.A. nowhere B. everywhere C. somewhere D. anywhere ‎53.A. morning B. noon C. afternoon D. night ‎54.A. result B. view C. problem D. point ‎55.A. familiar B. safe C. similar D. warm ‎56.A. Before B. Until C. Though D. After ‎57.A. office B. hometown C. house D. laboratory ‎58.A. kindness B. brightness C. absence D. appearance ‎59.A. escaped B. disappeared C. hidden D. fallen ‎60.A. merely B. really C. valuable D. delicate 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ This is a meaningful and impressive story. A man came to the USA. After settling down at ‎61. island, he went into a cafeteria to get something 62. (eat). He sat down at an empty table 63. (silent) and waited for someone to take his order, 64. nobody did. Finally, a woman with a plate full of food 65. (sit) opposite him and informed him 66. the cafeteria worked. “Start out at that end,” she said. “Just go along the line and pick out what you want. At the other end, they’ll tell you how much you have to pay.”‎ ‎“I soon learned how everything worked in the USA,” the man told a 67. (rely) friend. He said, “Life’s a cafeteria here. You can get anything as long as you are 68. (will) to pay the price.”‎ You can even get success, but you’ll never get it if you wait for someone to bring it to you. You have to get up and get it 69. (you). You can’t change the things that you can’t avoid or prevent. The only thing you can do is control your attitude. Once you reach that point in life, 70. (achieve) won’t be too far away.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ Yesterday I went to see a film with my best friend Kate. We set off at 1:30 in the afternoon and plan to arrive at the cinema before 2:30 so that we could watch the 3:15 show. The traffic was terrible bad. That made it even worse was that our bus broke up on the way. They stopped a taxi but rushed to the show. “Two ticket for 3:15,” Kate said, put the money on the counter. The film started at the moment we sat down in the cinema. It was an exciting film and we had great time yesterday afternoon.‎ 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 最近，你校英文报在举办主题为“Exercise an hour every day，healthy life for a lifetime．”的征文活动。假定你是李华，请根据以下内容用英语写一篇短文。‎ ‎1)．你对征文主题的理解；‎ ‎2)．你喜欢的运动项目及活动情况；‎ ‎3)．该运动给你生活和学习带来的益处。‎ 注意：1)．词数100左右 ‎2)．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ ‎3)．开头语已写好，不计入总词数。‎ Nowadays, having sports is becoming more and more popular．_______________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎_______________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎【参考答案】‎ 一．听力 ‎1-5:CCCAB 6-10:ACBAB 11-15:BCACC 16-20:BAABB 二．阅读理解 ‎21-23:CDD 24-27:BBCD 28-31:ACAD 32-35:CDBA 36-40:FBACE 三. 完形填空 ‎41-45:BADDC 46-50:ABCCB 51-55:ABDDA 56-60:DCCBA 四．语法填空 ‎61.an 62.to eat 63.silently 64.but 65.sat ‎66.how 67.reliable 68.willing 69.yourself 70.achievements 五．短文改错 ‎.1. plan—planned 2. terrible—terribly 3. That—What 4. up—down ‎5. They—We 6. but—and 7. ticket—tickets 8. put—putting/and put ‎9. 去掉at 10. great前加a 六．书面表达 Nowadays, having sports is becoming more and more popular. As we know, a person who keeps on taking exercises regularly will keep fit and live a happy life.‎ My favorite sport is playing basketball. After school I usually spend half an hour on it, which not only builds up my body but also makes me refreshed. Playing basketball helps me relax after a period of exhausting study and improves my study efficiency. Besides, through the game, I have learned the spirit of teamwork. It is also a good way for me to make new friends. In short, playing basketball enriches my life and makes me more confident.‎ Come on! Let’s do sports together and enjoy a healthy life!‎