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2018-2019学年江西省奉新县第一中学高二下学期第一次月考英语试题 Word版
2020届高二下学期第一次月考英语试卷 命题人: 熊勇 2019.3 本试卷分第I卷(选择题)和第II卷(非选择题) 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10称钟的时间来回答有关小题如阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where are the two speakers? A. In a store. B. At home. C. On the street. 2. What did the man do today? A. Watched a movie. B. Visited Susan. C. Studied at home. 3. How did the woman probably feel when reading the book? A. Moved. B. Excited C. Bored. 4. What does the woman probably think the man should do? A. Have the jacket returned. B. Exchange it for a red one. C. Exchange it for a black one. 5. What did the man do after supper? A. He worked on his school paper. B. He searched about a trip to London, C. He surfed the Internet for entertainment. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6至7题。 6. What do we know about the woman? A. She will help the man carry the bag. B. She is seeing someone off. C. She didn’t expect to see the man there. 7. What is the man doing there? A. Seeing off his girlfriend. B. Looking for his bag. C. Waiting for his flight. 听第7段材料,回答第8 、9题。 8. Why won’t the woman go to eat out tonight? A. Her friends are busy. B. She can’t book a table in a restaurant. C. She doesn’t feel like eating out tonight. 9. How long will the woman and her parents stay in the Sunshine Restaurant tomorrow? A. Half an hour. B. An hour. C. One and a half hours. 听第 8段材料,回答第 10至 12题。 10. What do we know about the man’s job? A. The pay isn’t satisfying. B. It is too difficult for him. C. It makes him tired every day. 11. What’s the man’s plan? A. To take a vacation. B. To go back to college. C. To find a new job. 12. What’s the man’s problem? A. He doesn’t have enough money. B. He doesn’t know where to go. C. He doesn’t have any time. 听第 9段材料,回答第 13至 16题。 13. How does the woman feel for Sam? A. Interested. B. Upset. C. Surprised. 14. What does the man probably think of Sam? A. Nice. B. Poor. C. Careless. 15. What will the woman do this afternoon? A. Play table tennis. B. Go shopping. C. Visit her aunt’s home. 16. How will the woman’s dad go to the conference tomorrow? A. By car. B. By subway C. By bus. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. How does the speaker usually go to school? A. By underground. B. By bike. C. On foot. 18. How long does one class usually last? A. 40 minutes. B. 45 minutes. C. 50 minutes. 19. What time do they have lunch? A. At 11:40. B. At 12:00 C. At 12:20. 20. What’s the speaker’s favorite subject? A. Science. B. Art. C. Music. 第二部分阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文 ,从每题所给的四个选项 (A 、B 、C 和 D )中 ,选出最佳选项 ,并在题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Music Opera at Music Hall: 1243 Elm Street. The season runs June through August, with additional performances in March and September. The Opera honors Enjoy the Arts membership discounts. Phone: 241-2742. http://www.cityopera.com. Chamber Orchestra: The Orchestra plays at Memorial Hall at 1406 Elm Street, which offers several concerts from March through June. Call 723-1182 for more information. http: //www.chamberorch.com. Symphony Orchestra: At Music Hall and Riverbend. For ticket sales, call 381-3300. Regular season runs September through May at Music Hall in summer at Riverbend. http://www.symphony.org/home.asp. College Conservatory of Music (CCM): Performances are on the main campus(校园) of the university, usually at Patricia Cobbett Theater. CCM organizes a variety of events, including performances by the well-known LaSalle Quartet, CCM’s Philharmonic Orchestra, and various groups of musicians presenting Baroque through modern music. Students with I.D. cards can attend the events for free. A free schedule of events for each term is available by calling the box office at 556-4183. http://www.ccm.uc.edu/events/calendar. Riverbend Music Theater: 6295 Kellogg Ave. Large outdoor theater with the closest seats under cover (price difference).Big name shows all summer long! Phone:232-6220. http://www.riverbendmusic.com. 21. Which number should you call if you want to see an opera? A. 241-2742. B. 723-1182. C. 381-3300. D. 232-6220. 22. When can you go to a concert by Chamber Orchestra? A. February. B. May. C. August. D. November. 23.Where can students go for free performances with their I.D. cards? A. Music Hall. B. Memorial Hall. C. Patricia Cobbett Theater. D. Riverbend Music Theater. 24. How is Riverbend Music Theater different from the other places? A. It has seats in the open air. B. It gives shows all year round. C. It offers membership discounts. D. It presents famous musical works. B History tells us that footwear was one of the first things ancient people learned to make. Footwear helped them across rocky paths or hot sands without injuring themselves. The earliest footwear we know of was simply a piece of plaited (编织的) grass or leather tied to the feet. The ancient Egyptians seem to have invented the first footwear with a firm sole (鞋底) — sandals. Egyptian royalty usually wore sandals that had a different style from those with lesser status (身份), while slaves were not allowed to wear anything on their feet. The sandal is still the basic form of footwear in many countries, particularly those with a hot climate, whereas(然而) in cold climates, an entirely different type of shoe appeared — the moccasin — a slipper-shaped shoe made of soft but strong leather. The Greeks were the first to develop shoes with heels (鞋跟). Then, in the Middle Ages, shoes with long points at the toe became very chic for the nobility(贵族). These shoes were often very difficult to wear. Other trends followed, with square-toed shoes, wide shoes, and even shoes that could make a woman stand two feet taller. Not surprisingly, these sometimes led to accidents. Even today, fashion rather than comfort often leads to the kind of shoes women wear. Mechanical shoemaking appeared in the 1800s in North America. Until then, shoes had been made with the same kinds of hand tools used by the ancient Egyptians. And in 1858, a machine was invented that could stitch (缝合) the sole of a shoe to the upper part. Now it was possible to make shoes that were shaped to fit either the left or right foot. Toward the end of the 1800s came a new type of shoe that was specifically designed for sports — the sneaker — and it soon become an all-time favorite. 25. What did shoes often show in ancient times? A. The rich resources. B. People's different beliefs. C. People's status in society. D. The changeable climates. 26. What does the underlined word “chic” in Paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Valuable. B. Convenient. C. Fashionable. D. Comfortable. 27. Before mechanical shoemaking appeared, _____. A. shoes were often very difficult for people to wear B. all the shoe patterns made by the Greeks were the same C. the only function of footwear was to protect people's feet D. people wore the same-shaped shoes on their two feet 28. How does the text mainly develop? A. By providing examples. B. By making comparisons. C. By following the order of time. D. By following the order of importance. C The coffee giant Starbucks is once again a popular search on the internet, and there are people who think that coffee is now replacing tea as the most popular drink in China. But, is that really so? Starbucks opened its biggest café shop in the world in Shanghai this Wednesday. The coffee giant says this will not only give customers the usual great coffee, but also give them the full experience of how the magical coffee beans get roasted to become those wonderful drops that make up your favorite drinks. It is like the Willy Wonka factory for coffee lovers. The company is expanding aggressively, and opening a new store every 15 hours on average in China. China has very rich and splendid tea culture. What seems like the most enjoyable thing is to drink a cup of tea on a quiet day that is full of "Zen"(禅)spirit. But the fast-pace of life sometimes doesn't allow that. So there are tea shop owners locating their shops in the downtown area in order to provide quick service for customers. Take Heytea for example. It's one of the most highly rated tea shops and it has now opened several new branches in the business areas of big cities like Beijing. Waiting in lines for longer than one hour is common. China's consumption of tea is immeasurable. According to a research of USC Institute, in China, the average person consumes 400 cups of tea per year. So it is unlikely that coffee can replace tea as the country's main drink any time soon. The expanding coffee shops are not there to replace tea, but to provide people with another choice that they can use to enjoy life. 29. Which of the following statements is correct about Starbucks? A. The shop opened in Shanghai simply works as a drinking place. B. Starbucks can only be seen in the downtown area of a city. C. Starbucks holds a certain share of Chinese drinking market. D. Starbucks supplies the world with the best-tasting coffee. 30. What can be concluded from the third paragraph? A. Tea culture is rooted in the hearts of Chinese citizens. B. The enjoyment of tea drinking can only be experienced in a quiet place. C. Tea consumption holds the largest share of world drinking market. D. The fast pace of modern life makes tea drinking no longer pleasant in China. 31. What is the author’s attitude to coffee and tea in China? A. Tea may bring more pleasure to Chinese citizens’ life. B. Coffee will replace tea in Chinese drinking market. C. Both coffee and tea will make people’s life enjoyable. D. Coffee and tea gain the same popularity in China. D It has long been believed that the smart phones in our pockets are actually making us duller(迟钝); but now there is evidence for it. Researchers at the University of Texas discovered that people are worse at conducting tasks and remembering information if they have a smart phone within eye shot(视野). In two experiments they found phones sitting on a desk or even in a pocket or handbag would distract(使、、、、分心) users and lead to worse test scores even when it was set up not to disturb test subjects. The effect was measurable even when the phones were switched off, and was worse for those who were more dependent on their mobiles. The researchers tested 520 university students on their memory and intelligence when in the presence of a smart phone to see how it affected them. Participants were told to complete tests in mathematics, memory and reasoning with their smart phones either on their desk, in their bag or pockets, or in another room. Those who had their phones on the desk recorded a 10 per cent lower score than those who left them in a different room on operational tasks, which measures working memory and focus* Those who kept their phones further out of sight in their pockets or their bags scored only slightly better than when phones were placed on desks. The researchers found that the negative effect of having a phone within eye shot was much greater among those who said they were dependent on their smart phones. Participants who had expressed sympathy with phrases such as “I would have trouble getting through a normal day without my cellphone ” and “using my cellphone makes me feel happy” performed as well as others when their phone was in a different room, but worse when it was placed on their desk. The researchers said the effect arises because part of a smart phone users’ mind is devoted to trying not to think about distractions such as whether they have any messages when the smart phone is in their sight. 32. For the people who scored the lowest, where did they put their cellphone? A. On the desk. B. In their bags. C. In their pockets. D. In a different room. 33. Which of the following will the researchers most probably agree with? A. People shouldn’t have a smart phone. B.Phones wouldn’t distract users when switched off. C.Those depending on mobiles are more likely to be distracted D.Their research has completely changed people’s view on smart phones. 34. According to the study, why did cellphones affect the participants? A.Using cellphones made them feel happy. B.They focused on trying to ignore distractions. C.They spent much time on the received messages. D.They couldn’t get through a day without cellphones. 35. Where does the text probably come from? A. Book review. B. A Science fiction. C. Cellphone advertisement. D. A news report. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余 选项。 Every morning is a struggle. 36 But did you know that drinking water can make you more energetic and productive than drinking coffee? • It helps to balance your nervous system. Drinking water on empty stomach especially if it’s hot can improve the health of your nervous system. 37 At this moment, if you just have a glass of warm water, it can properly offer water to your nervous system,which will help it function properly. • It prevents mild headaches. 38 So just by increasing your water intake, you are basically preventing your chances from suffering from them. • 39 Water can help release bacteria and other harmful elements from your system. This, in turn, can help your body fight the effects of certain chemicals which can cause your looking older. Furthermore, your skin will feel refreshed, which can help it maintain a flexible appearance. • It improves your appetite(胃 口). Early in the morning, with your stomach totally empty, it is natural you will feel hungry. So another benefit of drinking water is preparing you to have the most important meal of the day一breakfast. 40 . So now you know the benefits of drinking water on empty stomach. Just add a glass of warm or hot water to your schedule after you wake up and see all the health benefits it will bring to your life. A. It prevents body aging. B. It promotes mental fitness. C. Early morning, the stomach is most thirsty. D. Generally, we think that a cup of coffee would make things right E. The importance of drinking water can’t be emphasized too much. F. Besides, having a healthy desire for food is good for overall health. :: G. Doctors say they result from the removal of water among various reasons. 第三部分:英语知识运用 (共两节,满分45分) 第一节:完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 In 2009 we were staying at our cousin’s house in Triora, Italy. Settled just above a window was a bird’s nest which my 41 said had been there for many years. Each year, different families of starlings (椋鸟) came back to make it their 42 . We knew they were 43 because the chattering (鸣叫) of six newly hatched chicks 44 us early every morning. Standing on a chair, I 45 to look into their nest. The first time I looked, the chicks were 46 and almost featherless. Their parents 47 backwards and forwards, bringing food to 48 their hungry and noisy chicks. Being 49 parents, whenever they saw me they screamed and flew at the window. So I could only 50 the chicks when they weren’t around. 51 the chicks were only a few days old, I realized the parents were teaching their young to fly. One brave chick beat its wings a few times and then 52 across the street landing on the roof of the house 53 . Well done, I thought. The next day, my husband and I left for a tour and I was 54 , thinking of how I would miss the rest taking their first 55 . Two weeks later, on our 56 , the first thing I did was look in the nest. It was 57 . Then, suddenly, I head the beating of 58 and all eight of them were flying toward me. They 59 a semicircle(半圈), singing to me. I felt as though they were saying, “Thank you for not harming us.” Then they flew off 60 into the blue sky. 41. A. husband B. cousin C. guide D. neighbor 42. A. home B. playground C. office D. garden 43. A. together B. away C. back D. abroad 44. A. called B. warned C. harmed D. woke 45. A. dared B. happened C. managed D. continued 46. A. tiny B.deaf C. blind D. strong 47. A. slid B. wandered C. swung D. flew 48. A. amuse B. satisfy C. trick D. spoil 49. A. protective B. caring C. strict D. proud 50. A. scare B. train C. catch D. see 51. A. Because B.Before C. When D. If 52. A. stepped up B. took off C. looked around D. fell down 53. A. opposite B. below C. faraway D. behind 54. A. confused B. relieved C. sad D. delighted 55. A. shower B. dive C. bite D. flight 56. A. leaving B. return C. break D. journey 57. A. empty B. occupied C. ruined D. dirty 58. A. hearts B. waves C. wings D. drums 59. A. drew B. arranged C. designed D. formed 60. A. cautiously B.happily C. shyly D. abruptly 第二节语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Laughter Yoga(大笑瑜伽) surely includes some yoga, but it has little in common with the yoga classes (61.) (offer) at your local gym. It promotes the use of laughter as a form of physical exercise, attaching (62) (much) importance to the former than to the latter. Laughter Yoga (63) (create) in the mid-1990s as a social experiment. In 1995, Dr. Madan Kataria called on a group of students in a park (64) (test) whether adding regular laughter to people’s lives would improve (65) (they) well-being(健康). Kataria also introduced deep breathing and simple yoga moves to (66) exercise. Medical research suggests that laughing is a good way (67) (reduce) stress and help people feel good. Kataria’s Laughter clubs are popping up(涌现) in response to people’s need to deal with (68) (press). Kataria also offers books and videos to people (69) don’t have access (70) a local Laughter Club. However, connecting with other humans is a big part of Laughter Yoga’s success in helping people experience more joy. 第四部分写作(共两节;满分35分) 第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号( ),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用(\)划掉。 修改:在错的词下画一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。 Li Ming goes to the park last Saturday after he had already finished her homework. He saw several boys skating on the pond happy. Suddenly he heard a cry for help. Looked ahead, he found one of the boy had fallen into the water. Li Ming jumped into the icy water immediately but managed pull the boy to safety. Then the boy was give first aid and soon came to himself. The boy’s parents came soon after receive the phone call. They were very thankful to Li Ming, who was being trembling there with cold. 第二节:书面表达(满分25分) 阅读下面一则广告,按照要求完成写作任务。 EIL International English Summer Camp Volunteer Wanted EIL was founded in Britain in 1936 with the fundamental aim of international understanding “Learn to live together by living together.” Requirements: Over 16; good knowledge of English; outgoing; working well with children between 7-12. Activities: Language study, outdoor recreation and travel Campers: Students from different countries Camp site: Mount Wuyi, Fujian Time: July 26- August 9 Application deadline: July 15. 2018 If interested, please e-mail to info@eiuk.org 假设你是李华,这则广告引起了你的兴趣,请用英文写一封自荐信。要求如下: 1) 对夏令营主题的理解; 2) 根据招聘要求自我介绍; 3) 参加夏令营的目的。 注意:1.信的开头和结尾已为你写好,不计入总词数;2.词数120左右。 Dear sir, I’m Li Hua from Fujian. ______________________________________________________________________________________ 2019.3.19 听力: 1- 5 BCACB 6- 10 CCBBA 11- 15 BABCA 16- 20 ACABA 阅读21-24.ABCA 25-28CCDC 29-31CAC 32-35 ACBD 36-40DCGAF 第一节:完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分) 41-45 BACDC 46-50 ADBAD 51-55 CBACD 56-60 BACDB 语法填空 61 offered 62 more 63 was created 64 to test 65 their 66 thethatthis 67 to reduce 68 pressure 69 whothat 70 to 短文改错 : 1. goes- went 2.her-his 3 happy-happily 4 looked-looking 5 boy-boys 6 but-and 7 managed后加to 8 give-given 9 receive – receiving 10 去掉being 第二节:书面表达(满分25分) 参考范文 Dear sir, I’m Li Hua from Fujian. When I was reading the advertisement, the aim of this activity impressed me greatly. I think it instructive to learn to live together by living together.It is a good opportunity for the only child like me to learn to share and work together. Therefore I recommend myself to you without hesitation. As a boy of 17, I am outgoing, good at English and have experience of working well with children aged from 7 to 12. I think it is a kind of win-win activity. For one thing, I can help take care of the children. For another thing, I can improve my English, make more friends, and enrich my life during the summer vacation. I am looking forward to your early reply. 2019.3.19 听力: 1- 5 BCACB 6- 10 CCBBA 11- 15 BABCA 16- 20 ACABA 阅读21-24.ABCA 25-28CCDC 29-31CAC 32-35 ACBD 36-40DCGAF 第一节:完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分) 41-45 BACDC 46-50 ADBAD 51-55 CBACD 56-60 BACDB 语法填空 61 offered 62 more 63 was created 64 to test 65 their 66 thethatthis 67 to reduce 68 pressure 69 whothat 70 to 短文改错 : 1. goes- went 2.her-his 3 happy-happily 4 looked-looking 5 boy-boys 6 but-and 7 managed后加to 8 give-given 9 receive – receiving 10 去掉being 第二节:书面表达(满分25分) 参考范文 Dear sir, I’m Li Hua from Fujian. When I was reading the advertisement, the aim of this activity impressed me greatly. I think it instructive to learn to live together by living together.It is a good opportunity for the only child like me to learn to share and work together. Therefore I recommend myself to you without hesitation. As a boy of 17, I am outgoing, good at English and have experience of working well with children aged from 7 to 12. I think it is a kind of win-win activity. For one thing, I can help take care of the children. For another thing, I can improve my English, make more friends, and enrich my life during the summer vacation. I am looking forward to your early reply.查看更多